Oh come now. Catholics use that verse all the time to claim that no on should be interpreting scripture. The passage has no connection with that. The passage is saying that the prophets were not prophesying what they interpreted the vision to mean but that it was the meaning God gave to that vision. It has nothing to do with our interpreting scripture as Catholics like to portray it.
I misunderstood the point you were making. Your statement: “We can see that in the corruptions of scripture by the Catholic Church” gave me the impression that you were saying the Catholic translation was twisted, and I didn’t see that much of a difference between the Catholic translation and the Greek. I now see that you were questioning how some Catholics interpret that particular verse to mean that no one should be interpreting scripture. Kind of ironic, isn’t it?