Posted on 12/14/2014 11:57:21 AM PST by ealgeone
The reason for this article is to determine if the worship/veneration given to Mary by the catholic church is justified from a Biblical perspective. This will be evaluated using the Biblical standard and not man’s standard.
The first two words of that passage are "Now therefore," which means that what is coming next is explaining what was just written.
Verse 18 says "For through him we both have access by one Spirit unto the Father." If we have access to the Father, why go through Mary?
If we are fellow citizens and members of the household of God, why wouldn't He listen to us directly?
Verse 22 --"In whom ye also are builded together for an habitation of God through the Spirit." God Himself inhabits us--why would we--again--need or even want to go through another? He is right here with us. Talk to Him, not some other creation.
To address another point you seem to be implying, but actually coming out and saying--the recipients of the letter understood that Paul was not talking about those who have already gone on. He was talking strictly about living, breathing, Christians in Ephesia. That can also be translated to us--as long as we're living and breathing.
“Yep...put it in Latin so the masses couldn’t read it for themselves.”
that is so pathetic can’t you be more creative?
In the period immediately following the translation of the bible into the Latin Vulgate much less than 10% of the population was literate.
If they were literate there were no bibles in print.
EACH BIBLE WAS HAND COPIED BY CATHOLIC MONKS AND DISTRIBUTED TO CATHOLICS CHURCHES WHERE IT WAS READ EACH SUNDAY AT MASS
every body finally got there chance when the good protestants convinced the good Gutenburg to print his bible,
except for the fact that Gutenburg was a Catholic.
And prior to Gutenburg there were at least ten versions of the Vulgate in print in limited in Germany.
The only way your bible made it through the Dark Ages was that Catholics copied and preserved it.
You are entitled to your own opinions - not your own facts.
For the Greater Glory of God
You don’t seem to understand. Jerome took the different texts, in different languages, and put them in one language, Latin, which was the accepted scholarly language of the time. Jerome was known to have an incredible grasp of Hebrew, Aramaic, Greek, Latin, as well as other languages of the time (which we consider ancient).
Further, as the Church continued to translate the Bible into different languages, not only was the Jerusalem Bible used, but also the original language texts.
No one claims the Bible was written in Latin. Nor does anyone claim the original languages aren’t or haven’t been used since Jerome.
Rather, Jerome’s translation was so good, that scholars today use it when studying the Bible, in addition to original language texts.
please POST the original KOINE Greek text and the provenance of your test.
This will give you a great starting point.
again weak
“brought forth her firstborn son”
“her firstborn son” is a title conveying inheritance and does not indicate there was a “second born son”.
whew
What about the turn of phrase, "knew her not"?
"And knew her not till she had brought forth her firstborn son: and he called his name JESUS."Even the Vulgate says exactly the same thing and its pretty darned clear...
et non cognoscebat eam donec peperit filium suum primogenitum et vocavit nomen eius Iesum
Here's a link to a Latin to English translator, copy and paste and see what you get
I am absolutely denying it, and stating for the umpteenth time that Catholics do not “bow down to graven images,”
http://www.catholic.com/sites/default/files/images/blog/mainimages/statuesII.png
No one said one is REQUIRED to use intercessory prayer. On the contrary, in my previous post, you will find I said one can pray directly to any of the three Persons of the Trinity. We do so in the Our Father.
Second, reiterating above, intercessory prayer isn’t required. However, we ask our fellow man for intercessory prayer. Why? Because we seek and give spiritual support to our neighbors. We are showing them true charity (Caritas, or Agape).
Was Paul’s teaching only valid for the time, place, and people it was written to? No, nor was any epistle. Rather, they provide constant teaching to men everywhere, and for all time, as it was inspired by the Holy Spirit.
It has been proven over and over again that Jerome’s translation has errors.
Please enjoy this more thorough explanation by Tim Staples http://www.catholic.com/magazine/articles/the-case-for-mary%E2%80%99s-perpetual-virginity
Here are a few highlights:
Scripture’s statement that Joseph “knew [Mary] not until she brought forth her firstborn” would not necessarily mean they did “know” each other after she brought forth Jesus. Until is often used in Scripture as part of an idiomatic expression similar to our own usage in English. I may say to you, “Until we meet again, God bless you.” Does that necessarily mean after we meet again, God curse you? By no means. A phrase like this is used to emphasize what is being described before the until is fulfilled. It is not intended to say anything about the future beyond that point. Here are some biblical examples:
2 Samuel 6:23: And Michal the daughter of Saul had no child to (until) the day of her death. (Does this mean she had children after she died?)
1 Timothy 4:13: Until I come, attend to the public reading of scripture, to preaching, to teaching. (Does this mean Timothy should stop teaching after Paul comes?)
1 Corinthians 15:25: For he (Christ) must reign until he has put all his enemies under his feet. (Does this mean Christ’s reign will end? By no means! Luke 1:33 says, “he will reign over the house of Jacob forever and of his kingdom there shall be no end.”)
Until He had brothers and sisters.
Yeah--check out the history of John Wycliff and John Hus.
Including me. I never claimed catholics said they are required to do so. I merely asked "why do so?"
and why again should I read the history of two heretics??
AMDG
Please look up what a graven image is. People bow to each other all over the world, such as in Japan, and to monarchs, in their own countries. It is a symbol of respect.
If you had a photograph of the Mother of God, how would you treat it? A religious statute brings to mind the glory of God, teachings about the glory of God, and an example of how to follow God.
A graven image would be an idol, held equal to God. To bow before it would be a violation of the first commandment, which as I warned you before, to assert Catholics are violating it is false, and your promotion of the falsehood could be interpreted as a violation of the commandment to not bear false witness.
You benefit from their work.
One does so for the same reason one asks their own mother to pray for them, or their congregation.
Perhaps it just means what it says (in Greek, Latin, and English).:-)
if you have to ask: “why do so?”
let’s face it you won’t get it since your not Catholic
AMDG
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