I don't know what that means. Jesus plainly commends celibacy for "all who can accept it."
"For there are eunuchs who were born that way from their mother's womb; and there are eunuchs who were made eunuchs by men; and there are also eunuchs who made themselves eunuchs for the sake of the kingdom of heaven. He who is able to accept this, let him accept it."According to St. Paul:
I would that all men were even as myself; but every one hath his proper gift from God .... But I say to the unmarried and to the widows, it is good for them if they so continue, even as I.Paul was a bishop. Jesus is the eternal High Priest. The pope holds the office of the prime minister of the eternal House of David ( Isaiah 22:22, Matthew 16:19, Revelation 3:7, i.e., the Church), with the power to "bind and loose," given by Jesus himself. It is fitting for the Church to make celibacy a priestly discipline.
They however forbid clergy be single, unmarried, childless servants...
"The husband of one wife" means that a priest cannot be twice married. The statement does not mean that the early Church required marriage.
Doesn't say that...Why would it mean something it does not say but not mean the clear, plain, simple statement that it makes??? The bible calls that adding to or removing words from scripture...
If a man is divorced, he has NO wife...If he was married, divorced and remarried, the man has one wife, not two...Just as the bible says...
OK. Now I see what he is referring to.
Paul was not a bishop...None of the apostles were bishops...
Jesus is the eternal High Priest. The pope holds the office of the prime minister of the eternal House of David
There is no prime minister of the house of David...
( Isaiah 22:22, Matthew 16:19, Revelation 3:7, i.e., the Church), with the power to "bind and loose," given by Jesus himself. It is fitting for the Church to make celibacy a priestly discipline.
This is all fantasy...There's no scripture for that...In what year was this fantasy first penned by Catholics and turned into tradition???
Oh good grief. So they didn’t require marriage but they did require children and having ruled a household?
1 Timothy3:1This is a true saying, if a man desire the office of a bishop, he desireth a good work. 2 A bishop then must be blameless, the husband of one wife, vigilant, sober, of good behaviour, given to hospitality, apt to teach; 3 Not given to wine, no striker, not greedy of filthy lucre; but patient, not a brawler, not covetous; 4 One that ruleth well his own house, having his children in subjection with all gravity; 5 (For if a man know not how to rule his own house, how shall he take care of the church of God?)
Seriously? Never married but with children was what they meant? Do Catholics even read scripture before posting?