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To: St_Thomas_Aquinas; Iscool
>>"The husband of one wife" means that a priest cannot be twice married. The statement does not mean that the early Church required marriage.<<

Oh good grief. So they didn’t require marriage but they did require children and having ruled a household?

1 Timothy3:1This is a true saying, if a man desire the office of a bishop, he desireth a good work. 2 A bishop then must be blameless, the husband of one wife, vigilant, sober, of good behaviour, given to hospitality, apt to teach; 3 Not given to wine, no striker, not greedy of filthy lucre; but patient, not a brawler, not covetous; 4 One that ruleth well his own house, having his children in subjection with all gravity; 5 (For if a man know not how to rule his own house, how shall he take care of the church of God?)

Seriously? Never married but with children was what they meant? Do Catholics even read scripture before posting?

156 posted on 07/13/2014 4:35:04 PM PDT by CynicalBear (For I decided to know nothing among you except Jesus Christ)
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To: CynicalBear
1 Timothy3:1

This is a true saying, if a man desire the office of a bishop, he desireth a good work. 2 A bishop then must be blameless, the husband of one wife, vigilant, sober, of good behaviour, given to hospitality, apt to teach; 3 Not given to wine, no striker, not greedy of filthy lucre; but patient, not a brawler, not covetous; 4 One that ruleth well his own house, having his children in subjection with all gravity; 5 (For if a man know not how to rule his own house, how shall he take care of the church of God?)

Seriously? Never married but with children was what they meant? Do Catholics even read scripture before posting?

Does it make sense to you that Jesus and St. Paul would commend celibacy to all Christians and exclude the priesthood?

It doesn't make sense to me.

Especially since St. Paul was a bishop.

We know that Paul was a bishop because he speaks of laying hands (conferring the priesthood) on Timothy, which is the role of the bishop.

2 Tim 1: 6 For which cause I admonish thee, that thou stir up the grace of God which is in thee, by the imposition of my hands

1 Tim 4:14 Neglect not the grace that is in thee, which was given thee by prophesy, with imposition of the hands of the priesthood

So you're interpretation of Paul's statement can't be correct.

What you're doing is reading Protestant doctrine into Scripture. It does not follow with logical necessity from Paul's statement that priests must be married.

While this statement may appear to you to be a prescription for men entering the priesthood to be married, it is actually a proscription for those men who desired to enter the priestly state as married men.

Paul was requiring that married men, who were considering Holy Orders, to be married no more than once, and to have a well-ordered household.

Must Bishops be the Husband of One Wife.

182 posted on 07/13/2014 5:09:56 PM PDT by St_Thomas_Aquinas ( Isaiah 22:22, Matthew 16:19, Revelation 3:7)
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