This is apparently mindreading; or else Strawman 1012.
In that it was clear that you saw the Church entirely from the perspective of one who did not equate it with the Bible but apart from it and out of a sense of a personal interpretation of what that book means and teaches.This is apparently mindreading; or else Strawman 1012.
Sorry, but I just don't see this. Or are you really saying that you do equate the Church's interpretation of the brothers of the Lord as biblical? If so, then I am sorry, but I would have to ask why you are then arguing against a perfectly biblical understanding of these verses?