and why was Spain the ‘largest, richest’ country at that time? could it have more to do with the confiscation of the amassed wealth of their Moors and Jews, or more to do with internal industriousness?
“and why was Spain the ‘largest, richest’ country at that time?”
1) The Spanish were driven like other peoples of Catholic Western Europe to achieve.
2) Overseas conquest.
3) Massive trade around the world: spices, luxury goods, eventually slaves, silver.
“could it have more to do with the confiscation of the amassed wealth of their Moors and Jews, or more to do with internal industriousness?”
It had little to do with the confiscation of wealth of Moors or Jews. That wealth didn’t go very far. After the conquest of Granada (from the Moors), Spain had money to fund a little known sea captain named Columbus, however.