The problem, especially with the last statement, is that it nowhere actually says this in scripture. When Christ was explaining the unbelief of the Jews, He does not say that they do not believe because it was "foreknown" that they would reject, or that they even rejected at any time. He specifically says that the reason they do not believe is because it was not given to them to believe, and not for any other reason than that.
Joh 6:64 But there are some of you who do not believe." (For Jesus knew from the beginning who those were who did not believe, and who it was who would betray him.) Joh 6:65 And he said, "This is why I told you that no one can come to me unless it is granted him by the Father."
Look closely at the verse. That He knew they did not believe is the reason why He kept telling them that "no one can come to me unless it is granted him by the Father."
While it is true that He commands men everywhere to repent, this does not mean that they will obey His command, or that He will not cause some to believe, or that He will not choose to cause any not to believe. God does not command things, and then refuse to cause His people to obey them, because He refuses to mess with their "free will." What God commands for His people, He also gives, and hence the scripture: "For He works in us both to will and to do of His good pleasure," and "I will put my spirit in you, and will cause you to walk in my statutes." Your statement, sweet sister, and I do not judge you for your opinion, mind you, and love you dearly, for we are saved by faith, not by faith in Calvinism or Arminianism, but your statement where you say "He also showed mercy to those whom He would show mercy, those who would believe in Him given the opportunity," is problematic. Since if we rightly locate sovereignty in God to show mercy on anyone, then we cannot say that God ever owes anyone mercy, no matter what they do. It also comes to even more direct conflict with the verse that comes right below for. "So then it is not him who willeth, or him that runneth, but God who has mercy." Since your statement would affirm that the "willing" is indeed the factor, and not the mercy of God. Either we believe that it is all of mercy, or we must believe that willing and running do indeed meet God half way, and it is not all of His mercy.
It is true that He hardened people, like Pharaoh, but Pharaoh hardened his heart first, then God hardened it.
By definition, all that God does is just, and none are condemned for anything, but for what they have incurred. But God foresaw Pharoah, and, rather than, say, letting him die at birth, or being replaced by someone else, God chose to "raise" him up, and use him according to his own purposes, foreseeing already that Pharoah would be perish. In fact, all things are worked by God. No man has any power, any authority, but by the divine establishment of God. Even evil spirits and men can only do what God permits, and in so doing accomplish His will, as it is God who regulates the darkness.
The 'problem' is the FIRST statement!
It is true that there is no such thing as free will.