“Does God grant it or “draw” all men, yes or no? This is in response to your statement that He does not, but seems to do so selectively on individuals based on His knowledge of who would accept it if He did.”
False dilemma. Do he draw all equally, without reference to all He knows? No. Does He draw all at least somewhat? Yes. The creation around us screams out the existence and worship worthiness of the Creator. Remember, draw does not equal compel. It does not mean an irresistible drawing that forces obedience.
“Now is the time for this world to be judged; now the ruler of this world will be overthrown. 32 When I am lifted up from the earth, I will draw everyone to me.” - John 12
However, has He abandoned some who have rejected Him? According to Paul & the writer of Hebrews, that answer is yes.
Calvin wanted his systematic theology to be black & white, with neat answers to everything. But in man is complex, the Infinite God is vastly more so, and He has not chosen to give us every detail of His dealings with every human.
“Your folly is that you make light of original sin.”
Citing modern America hardly does that.
“you still say nothing to the question of those who never knew Christ.”
On the contrary, I’ve given my opinion on the subject, while neither you nor Gamecock have given your belief. I have been far more explicit in discussing my beliefs than you have in yours.
Calvin claimed that the vast majority of men are condemned to hell, not because they rejected any revelation of God, but because it pleases God to send them to hell. He claimed those saved are saved, not because they responded to God’s revelation with belief, but without any regard for anything they did. That view makes a liar of God, who said it did depend on repenting and believing, not on some list of names.
I don’t know what your belief is, because you have not been very explicit about yours - only attacking mine.
Your previous statement:
"In John 6, Jesus knew full well that much of his audience had no intention of EVER following him....In this sense, it is absolutely true that there are men long past salvation. God will not try to draw them, but will save them up for destruction.
You need to make up your mind on this. So if God foreknows that there are people who will "never" follow Him, and you say He will then not bother to draw them because they are "beyond" salvation, how do you now turn around and say that they are drawn to some degree, but on a lesser level? Does God "start a work in someone" only to not finish it, knowing it is in vain to begin with?
Php_1:6 Being confident of this very thing, that he which hath begun a good work in you will perform it until the day of Jesus Christ:
But, more importantly, you are still ignoring my points. You need to answer these questions:
1) Does John 6:37 mean anything in that it is declared that All who are given by the Father to the Son do come to Him, and these same who "come" are in no wise cast out? Are these people preserved? And do all of them actually come? Why or why not?
2) When Christ states that "There are some of you that disbelieve... That is why I told you, no one can come to me unless my Father grants it." Can you explain why we should not connect these statement? Is the latter an explanation for the former (the unbelief), yes or no? And, if they were drawn to the Son "unequally," why does Christ here sound like they were never granted it by the Father to come to the Son? When does the drawing happen, and how, if you believe this, is it different or separate from the "granting" or the "giving" of the Father? Can someone be 'drawn' to the Son, and then "given" to the Son so that they may "come" in response to their positive reaction to the drawing? If this sounds confusing, it's because you have yet to give any explanation for any of these terms and their relationship with each other.
Remember, draw does not equal compel.
Why do you keep repeating this as if I've said otherwise? But how is one "drawn" and yet not "drawn"?
“Now is the time for this world to be judged; now the ruler of this world will be overthrown. 32 When I am lifted up from the earth, I will draw everyone to me.” - John 12
How do you reconcile this verse with John 6 (provided you answered my questions prior to coming to this question) or with John 17:9?
Joh_17:9 I pray for them: I pray not for the world, but for them which thou hast given me; for they are thine.
If these verses indicate that Christ did not come to draw all men, but only to receive those whom the Father gives to Him, then the explanation for this verse is: By "all men" is meant every sort of man, as the Jews are prone to speaking.
On the contrary, I’ve given my opinion on the subject, while neither you nor Gamecock have given your belief.
Your opinion was "God is just, that is all I'll say." And I have indeed given my view. I even condemned you for claiming that there is salvation outside of Jesus Christ for it. Don't you remember?
Calvin claimed that the vast majority of men are condemned to hell, not because they rejected any revelation of God, but because it pleases God to send them to hell.
Can you please quote the relevant letter or passage from his Institutes? Or from Luther's On the Bondage of the Will? Or any of the Reformers? We teach that men are dead in sin and are voluntary sinners and rebels. We do not teach that they do not reject revelation. We teach that they reject revelation, that is, unless God intervenes to save them. But when God intervenes, He does not fail in this process. This is where we differ.
He claimed those saved are saved, not because they responded to God’s revelation with belief, but without any regard for anything they did.
This is exactly correct!
That view makes a liar of God, who said it did depend on repenting and believing, not on some list of names.
How does it make God a liar? The former does not logically lead to the latter. All those whom God saves most certainly repent and believe, and the offer is freely made to the world itself. But the world rejects it, and in so doing the enemies of Christ lose any excuse they have. We do not teach that anyone is compelled to sin or to reject God. We teach that men are born in sin and in rejection of God, and they happily continue to do this, so that if God does not intervene, none would accept His mercy, because they simply do not want it.
I don’t know what your belief is, because you have not been very explicit about yours - only attacking mine.
Says the guy who told me 'God is just, and that is all I'll have to say," and then goes on thumping his chest about how much he explained himself!