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To: Greetings_Puny_Humans; metmom; Elsie; .45 Long Colt

“There’s simply nothing to post. I have read Biblical commentaries by Arminians, scriptural arguments from Arminians, and when it comes to verses like what we find in John 6, there is a sudden and mysterious lack of depth and detail in their commentaries.”

Given your refusal to read what I have provided or the links, I am skeptical of your claim.

As for John 6, you continue to read Calvinism in to verses that say nothing of the sort, so I must conclude that careful reading of the scripture isn’t your strong point either. The text does not say what you want it to say, and specifically says something else:

“For this is the will of my Father, that everyone who looks on the Son and believes in him should have eternal life, and I will raise him up on the last day.”

We are saved by grace thru faith, and gain entrance to grace thru faith, as scripture says - not via election or a secret will of God.

“If you are suggesting that there will be salvation outside of Jesus Christ for those who have never heard the Gospel, you would be horribly wrong.”

What I have said is that God is just, and I am content to leave it there. If you consider that wrong, then I suggest you reconsider.

“So Jesus answered them, “Do not grumble among yourselves. Nobody comes to me unless he is drawn to me by the Father who sent me, and I will raise him up when the last day comes. In the prophets it is written—‘And they shall all be taught by God,’ and this means that everybody who has heard the Father’s voice and learned from him will come to me...I assure you that the man who trusts in him has eternal life already.”

Who comes to God? “everybody who has heard the Father’s voice and learned from him” - which is simply a rephrasing of what I said.


“There is no thought here of force or magic. The term figuratively expresses the supernatural power of the love of God or Christ which goes out to all (12:32) but without which no one can come (6:44). The apparent contradiction shows that both the election and the universality of grace must be taken seriously; the compulsion is not automatic.

What is rather ironic in all of this discussion is that the above definition coincides beautifully with the Wesleyan-Arminian doctrine of prevenient grace — a doctrine that R.C. Sproul denies that the Bible teaches (pp. 123-125). Wesleyan-Arminians believe that divine grace works in the hearts and wills of every person to elicit a faith response or as Thomas Oden states so well, “God’s love enables precisely that response in the sinner which God’s holiness demands: trust in God’s own self-giving” (“The Transforming Power of Grace,” p. 45).”

http://evangelicalarminians.org/does-john-6-44-teach-irresistible-grace/

“The disagreement between Calvinists and Arminians would be over the meaning of the word draw in John 6:44; whether this divine drawing or assistance is irresistible or resistible, and whether it extends to all people as John 12:32 suggests, or just to some people. We need to keep in mind that there is a huge difference between being irresistibly compelled or forced to believe in Christ and being graciously enabled to believe...

...I have surveyed every available Lexicon, Exegetical Dictionary, and Greek-English Dictionary, that I could find in bookstores, Seminaries, and College libraries available to me. Here is a sampling of the evidence:

• A Greek-English Lexicon of the New Testament and other Early Christian Literature, says helkuo is used figuratively “of the pull on man’s inner life. . . . draw, attract J 6:44” [Bauer, Arndt, Gingrich, Danker, p. 251].

• The Analytical Lexicon to the Greek New Testament, states that helkuo is used metaphorically “to draw mentally and morally, John 6:44; 12:32” [William Mounce, p. 180].

• The Greek-English Lexicon to the New Testament has, “met., to draw, i.e. to attract, Joh. xii. 32. Cf. Joh. vi. 44” [W.J. Hickie, p. 13].

• The Analytical Lexicon of the Greek New Testament by Timothy Friberg, Barbara Friberg, and Neva F. Miller says, “figuratively, of a strong pull in the mental or moral life draw, attract (JN 6.44)” [p. 144].

• Calvinist Spiros Zodhiates, in his Hebrew-Greek Key Study Bible, says, “Helkuo is used of Jesus on the cross drawing by His love, not force (Jn. 6:44; 12:32)” [New Testament Lexical Aids, p. 1831].

I could cite at least eight more reference works but it is unnecessary because not a single one of them defines draw in John 6:44 as “compel or force.” Clearly, R.C. Sproul has not done his homework.”

http://wesley.nnu.edu/arminianism/the-arminian-magazine/issue-1-spring-2001-volume-19

“form of the verb heko is in the future, active, indicative, 3rd person, singular form and indicates that someone/something will come. Again, a brief examination of our lexicons offers no surprises. Those who are being given to the Son will come to Him, that is, to be present with him. What we need to be cautious in doing with a word like this is not to freight it with our desired meaning or read theological implications into it. In the majority usage within the NT, the usage of heko (and its forms) is to simply come, to be present. To draw out a theological meaning takes more than a single word, verse, or sometimes even a passage.”

http://evangelicalarminians.org/the-honest-reading-canard-john-6-37-40/


115 posted on 05/09/2014 10:05:49 PM PDT by Mr Rogers (I sooooo miss America!)
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To: Mr Rogers; Gamecock; metmom; Elsie; .45 Long Colt
Who comes to God? “everybody who has heard the Father’s voice and learned from him” - which is simply a rephrasing of what I said. The term figuratively expresses the supernatural power of the love of God or Christ which goes out to all (12:32) but without which no one can come (6:44).

Before we begin, remember what I wrote before, which you ignored:

"Further, you state that "those the Father gives" are those who already believe. IOW, they believe, and therefore God gives them to the Son. Where is your evidence for this assertion? It is presupposed, but it is not sourced in the text. The Father is the first cause of the giving in these verses, and the direct cause for unbelief in the other verse referenced, and to "come" is tied with believing. Hence Christ states that there are those who do not believe, and then immediately explains, 'That is why I told you, no man can come to me unless it is given to Him by the Father.' Thus to "come" to Christ is another way of saying "to believe" in Christ, and all those whom the Father gives to the Son, therefore, believe in Christ, and this infallibly, with none of them being lost."

Thus, when Christ says that all those whom the Father gives come to Him, and all those who hear the voice of the Father come to Him, and all those who the Father draws are "risen up," He is speaking all of the same thing. And all of this has the same originator: The active decision of God, which, when decided upon for someone, goes forth and works infallibly, without any being lost. Compare again: Joh 6:37 All that the Father giveth me shall come to me; and him that cometh to me I will in no wise cast out.

Joh 6:39 And this is the Father's will which hath sent me, that of all which he hath given me I should lose nothing, but should raise it up again at the last day.

Now note with these verses:

No man can come to me, except the Father which hath sent me draw him: and I will raise him up at the last day.it is written in the prophets, And they shall be all taught of God. Every man therefore that hath heard, and hath learned of the Father, cometh unto me. Not that any man hath seen the Father, save he which is of God, he hath seen the Father. (Joh 6:44-46)

And some more:

Joh_17:9 I pray for them: I pray not for the world, but for them which thou hast given me; for they are thine.

Joh_10:26 But ye believe not, because ye are not of my sheep, as I said unto you.

But there are some of you who do not believe." (For Jesus knew from the beginning who those were who did not believe, and who it was who would betray him.) And he said, "This is why I told you that no one can come to me unless it is granted him by the Father." (Joh 6:64-65)

These verses are not compatible with any idea of God universally "granting" or "giving" or "drawing" all men, as those unbelievers, surely, would have then received it from the Father to believe, but rejected it, especially since some of them may have even been believers for a time before shocked into confusion over Christ's spiritual "eating."

What I have said is that God is just, and I am content to leave it there. If you consider that wrong, then I suggest you reconsider.

Reconsider what? Do you believe, yes or no, that these people may be saved having never heard of Jesus Christ? And what do you define as "just"? Is it that God is obligated to show mercy to all people?


116 posted on 05/09/2014 11:02:28 PM PDT by Greetings_Puny_Humans (I mostly come out at night... mostly.)
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To: Mr Rogers; Gamecock; metmom; Elsie; .45 Long Colt
Whoops, I italicized everything by accident. Here's the post again:

Who comes to God? “everybody who has heard the Father’s voice and learned from him” - which is simply a rephrasing of what I said. The term figuratively expresses the supernatural power of the love of God or Christ which goes out to all (12:32) but without which no one can come (6:44).

Before we begin, remember what I wrote before, which you ignored:

"Further, you state that "those the Father gives" are those who already believe. IOW, they believe, and therefore God gives them to the Son. Where is your evidence for this assertion? It is presupposed, but it is not sourced in the text. The Father is the first cause of the giving in these verses, and the direct cause for unbelief in the other verse referenced, and to "come" is tied with believing. Hence Christ states that there are those who do not believe, and then immediately explains, 'That is why I told you, no man can come to me unless it is given to Him by the Father.' Thus to "come" to Christ is another way of saying "to believe" in Christ, and all those whom the Father gives to the Son, therefore, believe in Christ, and this infallibly, with none of them being lost."

Thus, when Christ says that all those whom the Father gives come to Him, and all those who hear the voice of the Father come to Him, and all those who the Father draws are "risen up," He is speaking all of the same thing. And all of this has the same originator: The active decision of God, which, when decided upon for someone, goes forth and works infallibly, without any being lost. Compare again: Joh 6:37 All that the Father giveth me shall come to me; and him that cometh to me I will in no wise cast out.

Joh 6:39 And this is the Father's will which hath sent me, that of all which he hath given me I should lose nothing, but should raise it up again at the last day.

Now note with these verses:

No man can come to me, except the Father which hath sent me draw him: and I will raise him up at the last day.it is written in the prophets, And they shall be all taught of God. Every man therefore that hath heard, and hath learned of the Father, cometh unto me. Not that any man hath seen the Father, save he which is of God, he hath seen the Father. (Joh 6:44-46)

And some more:

Joh_17:9 I pray for them: I pray not for the world, but for them which thou hast given me; for they are thine.

Joh_10:26 But ye believe not, because ye are not of my sheep, as I said unto you.

But there are some of you who do not believe." (For Jesus knew from the beginning who those were who did not believe, and who it was who would betray him.) And he said, "This is why I told you that no one can come to me unless it is granted him by the Father." (Joh 6:64-65)

These verses are not compatible with any idea of God universally "granting" or "giving" or "drawing" all men, as those unbelievers, surely, would have then received it from the Father to believe, but rejected it, especially since some of them may have even been believers for a time before shocked into confusion over Christ's spiritual "eating."

What I have said is that God is just, and I am content to leave it there. If you consider that wrong, then I suggest you reconsider.

Reconsider what? Do you believe, yes or no, that these people may be saved having never heard of Jesus Christ? And what do you define as "just"? Is it that God is obligated to show mercy to all people?

117 posted on 05/09/2014 11:03:18 PM PDT by Greetings_Puny_Humans (I mostly come out at night... mostly.)
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To: Mr Rogers; Gamecock; metmom; Elsie; .45 Long Colt
I could cite at least eight more reference works but it is unnecessary because not a single one of them defines draw in John 6:44 as “compel or force.” Clearly, R.C. Sproul has not done his homework.” http://wesley.nnu.edu/arminianism/the-arminian-magazine/issue-1-spring-2001-volume-19 “form of the verb heko is in the future, active, indicative, 3rd person, singular form and indicates that someone/something will come. Again, a brief examination of our lexicons offers no surprises. Those who are being given to the Son will come to Him, that is, to be present with him. What we need to be cautious in doing with a word like this is not to freight it with our desired meaning or read theological implications into it. In the majority usage within the NT, the usage of heko (and its forms) is to simply come, to be present. To draw out a theological meaning takes more than a single word, verse, or sometimes even a passage.”

Once last thing, this is, again, pointing to the red herring pointed at earlier. If one is "drawn", or 'granted," or, if one who hears the voice of the Father then "comes," we can believe quite well that they do come, and all those who do come Christ "in no wise casts out."

We are, again, back into these same verses which you will not deal with in any substantive way. And they are these:

But there are some of you who do not believe." (For Jesus knew from the beginning who those were who did not believe, and who it was who would betray him.) And he said, "This is why I told you that no one can come to me unless it is granted him by the Father." (Joh 6:64-65)

Joh 6:37 All that the Father giveth me shall come to me; and him that cometh to me I will in no wise cast out.

If we believe that those who hear of the Father "come," then we must known that they believe, as Christ will not cast them out. If we believe that a person has heard the voice of God, then we must believe that they will "come." And if a person is said to not believe, then He has neither heard the voice of God, and therefore has not come, and cannot, unless it is "granted" Him.

118 posted on 05/09/2014 11:10:20 PM PDT by Greetings_Puny_Humans (I mostly come out at night... mostly.)
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