KJV:
“Therefore being a prophet, and knowing that God had sworn with an oath to him, that of the fruit of his loins, according to the flesh, he would raise up Christ to sit on his throne;”
Douay-Rheims Bible
“Whereas therefore he was a prophet, and knew that God hath sworn to him with an oath, that of the fruit of his loins one should sit upon his throne.”
New International Version:
“But he was a prophet and knew that God had promised him on oath that he would place one of his descendants on his throne.”
It might help to refer to the OT to SEE just what the PROMISE was, to determine how 'close' the NT translations are.
“...he would raise up Christ to sit on his throne;”
I don’t believe you will find the word “Christ” or the possessive “his throne” anywhere in the original Greek texts - I believe they are the pure invention of King James’ loyal “scholars”.
The differences in translations are significant with the KJV being the most deviant.
and you base all your beliefs on what some 16th century “scholar” thought the vaunted King James would want to see in Bible?
AMDG