No it doesn’t. At least not in the sense you seem to imply. The Greek word used in that verse means that they didn’t acknowledge or consider their sin until Jesus pointed it out. It in no way says they did not have sin until then. That is why we must proclaim the gospel to all. We need to point out that they are lost already unless they turn to Jesus.
The claim by the RCC that those who “through no fault of their own” do not know Christ are saved is nonsense. If that were true it would be cruel to proclaim the gospel to them. If they were saved in their ignorance but we proclaimed the gospel to them and they didn’t believe they would then be lost. If they were already saved why risk their salvation should they not then believe?
“The claim by the RCC that those who “through no fault of their own” do not know Christ are saved is nonsense.”
Heinously ignorant statement. I didn’t say that. Are you propagating lies intentionally or is this innocent?
Let me fix your statement:
The RCC claims that those who “through no fault of their own” do not know Christ MAY BE saved.
If you dispute that then you have become the judge of people’s souls. Congatulations.
Does that mean God condemns the billions of people that ....through no fault of their own...were born on a part of the planet, or at a time that had no knowledge of Jesus? Or am I misunderstanding?