“Again you have to manipulate the lexicon to draw a different conclusion. What Bible version are you using? I ask because “theos” is not in the OT Hebrew.”
It’s a Septuagint translation of the Hebrew “Elohim”
“When Thomas said “My Lord and my God” it was not ‘my Lord and one of the gods; or a god.” To apply your example, it would result in Thomas calling Jesus “his” ‘god’ therefore going against the knowledge Thomas had of the Law which says there is only “One True God.” So you have to change the Hebrew and Greek lexicons everywhere else in Scriptures to fit your excuse that Thomas did not mean God, but “gods.”
More accurately, using “theos” in correct context here Thomas was saying my Lord and master, person of authority, so he would not be going against his “One True God” belief.
As Michaelis a Trinitarian even acknowledged, regarding Thomas:
“I do not affirm that Thomas passed all at once from the extreme of doubt to the highest degree of faith, and acknowledged Christ to be the true God. This appears to me too much for the then existing knowledge of the disciples; and we have no intimation that they recognized the divine nature of Christ before the outpouring of the Holy Spirit. I am therefore inclined to understand this expression, which broke out in the height of his astonishment, in a figurative sense, denoting only “whom I shall ever reverence in the highest degree”…Or a person raised from the dead might be regarded as a divinity; for the word God is not always used in the strict doctrinal sense” (Concessions of Trinitarians, pp. 23-25,)”
Incorrect. Nowhere is "theos" used as Master. When he said "Lord" that was the affirmation of "Master." When "Lord" is used it is kyrios in Greek. So Thomas was not saying "My Lord and my Lord." No, "theos" has only the following meanings: God; a god or goddess, a general name of deities or divinities. So at least choose one of the above and not try to replace the lexicon used.
So within the context of the passage and original language your choices are above. Lord and Master was covered in the very first portion of Thomas' statement.
The opinion of Michaelis is just that an opinion. An opinion where the lexicon says different and translators over the centuries refute.
I will ask again. What Bible translation are you using to come to your conclusions?
From Vines:
1 Strong's Number: g2316 Greek: theos God:
(A) in the polytheism of the Greeks, denoted "a god or deity," e.g., Act 14:11; 19:26; 28:6; 1Cr 8:5; Gal 4:8. (B)
(a) Hence the word was appropriated by Jews and retained by Christians to denote "the one true God." In the Sept. theos translates (with few exceptions) the Hebrew words Elohim and Jehovah, the former indicating His power and preeminence, the latter His unoriginated, immutable, eternal and self-sustained existence.
In the NT, these and all the other Divine attributes are predicated of Him. To Him are ascribed, e.g., His unity, or monism, e.g., Mar 12:29; 1Ti 2:5; self-existence, Jhn 5:26; immutability, Jam 1:17; eternity, Rom 1:20; universality, Mat 10:29; Act 17:26-28; almighty power, Mat 19:26; infinite knowledge, Act 2:23; 15:18; Rom 11:33; creative power, Rom 11:36; 1Cr 8:6; Eph 3:9; Rev 4:11; 10:6; absolute holiness, 1Pe 1:15; 1Jo 1:5; righteousness, Jhn 17:25; faithfulness, 1Cr 1:9; 10:13; 1Th 5:24; 2Th 3:3; 1Jo 1:9; love, 1Jo 4:8, 16; mercy, Rom 9:15, 18; truthfulness, Tts 1:2; Hbr 6:18. See GOOD, No. 1 (b).