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To: annalex; Elsie; metmom
St. John the Baptist's was not the Christian baptism that remits sin, it was merely a sign of penance. Ritual ablutions indeed were nothing new to the Jews even before St. John; it is not like Jesus taught us how to bathe. By giving us an example of Himself being baptized, and God making the appearance, the Lord showed that baptism that He gives is the baptism that brings us into the sonship of God. Note, too, that Jesus has no sin, and certainly had no lack of faith in His Father nor His own divinity, so His baptism is not for His own need, and not a sign of conversion, but for our edification, so that we know that baptism saves.

In the Jewish religion, mikvahs are used symbolically for MANY purposes. Jesus going through John the Baptist's baptism was for His being set apart for His ministry beginning. Of course it wasn't to cleanse Him from sin, nor was it to bring Him "into the sonship of God", since He WAS the Son of God. The Christian ordinance of baptism was not even known about when that event happened.

Adjust your view outside of a pigeonhole idea of a word (i.e., baptism) and you'll be able to understand the concept and purpose of what baptism is really about.

420 posted on 10/26/2013 12:03:11 AM PDT by boatbums (God is ready to assume full responsibility for the life wholly yielded to Him.)
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To: boatbums
...you'll be able to understand the concept and purpose of what baptism is really about.

This HERETIC seemed to be a bit, shall we say, dismissing about the TRUE value of baptism:

1 Corinthians 1:15-17

...so that no one would say you were baptized in my name. 16 Now I did baptize also the household of Stephanas; beyond that, I do not know whether I baptized any other. 17 For Christ did not send me to baptize, but to preach the gospel, not in cleverness of speech, so that the cross of Christ would not be made void.

(Poor fool; didn't seem to know whether it was a SIGN or a REQUIREMENT.)

427 posted on 10/26/2013 4:37:21 AM PDT by Elsie (Heck is where people, who don't believe in Gosh, think they are not going...)
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To: boatbums; annalex; Elsie
In the Jewish religion, mikvahs are used symbolically for MANY purposes. Jesus going through John the Baptist's baptism was for His being set apart for His ministry beginning. Of course it wasn't to cleanse Him from sin, nor was it to bring Him "into the sonship of God", since He WAS the Son of God. The Christian ordinance of baptism was not even known about when that event happened.

The purpose for Jesus' baptism is stated right in Scripture by John. It was so that John would recognize Jesus and He would be revealed to the world.

John 1:29-34 The next day he saw Jesus coming toward him, and said, “Behold, the Lamb of God, who takes away the sin of the world! This is he of whom I said, ‘After me comes a man who ranks before me, because he was before me.’ I myself did not know him, but for this purpose I came baptizing with water, that he might be revealed to Israel.” And John bore witness: “I saw the Spirit descend from heaven like a dove, and it remained on him. I myself did not know him, but he who sent me to baptize with water said to me, ‘He on whom you see the Spirit descend and remain, this is he who baptizes with the Holy Spirit.’ And I have seen and have borne witness that this is the Son of God.

429 posted on 10/26/2013 4:51:07 AM PDT by metmom ( ...fixing our eyes on Jesus, the Author and Perfecter of faith....)
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To: boatbums; Elsie; metmom
Adjust your view

Yes, mikvot historically preceded Christian baptism and are a prefugurement of it. I argued otherwise?

437 posted on 10/27/2013 6:06:01 PM PDT by annalex (fear them not)
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