“Justinian’s plague hit France too. Is that plain enough?”
No. Justinian’s plague (in the 540’s) was 300 hundred years BEFORE Charles the Bald. Thus, no one could be worried about it - which was the original point made by the other poster. Go back and look at the thread.
You are really not helping yourself here. You keep supporting my point by pointing out there was no plague in Europe for three hundred years before Charles and more than 500 years after him. One of things you have to be able to do when discussing history is be able to count. Three hundred years before and 550 years after clearly means no plague anytime soon from the time of Charles the Bald. It’s just that simple.
Which sort of habitual methodology of debate and discourse is the actual underlying "point" I was attempting to draw attention to, to challenge even pride itself, doing so using reasoning & methodology similar to that which I see yourself very much using.
Yet I was more generous, acknowledging the time period between the larger 200+ year spans of recurring plague outbreak as a dry spell --- which would leave your initial statement part-right, but still part wrong, for plague had indeed entered Europe long before the "550 years later" which you initially pointed towards.