I have to disagree. Social acceptability of language changes over time and this is reflected in new translations. This is quite obvious in some phrases in the Book of Mormon.
If we accept you conclusion; THEN the question becomes:
"If GOD directed these editing modifications; due to language change, in approximately 100 years; why on earth didn't GOD do that to begin with?"
'language' had VASTLY changed from the stilted KJV speech of 1611 to the vernacular of the early 1800's."
I bid you adieu to ponder this.