I’m stunned. And what exactly do you think Paul expected the people to do with what he wrote? Did God not inspire those letters until 300 years after they were written and read by those people? I’ve got news for you. It didn’t require the sanction of the RCC for those letters to be considered authoritative. Ie scripture.
Yes they were passed around later, but that was not the original intent.
As I asked in another post what about the actual 1st letter to the Corinthians (not the one we call 1 Cor.) Why isn't that viewed as scripture? Well, it was written to the same group by the same authoritative person. Try and come with an intelligent reply.