Yes they were passed around later, but that was not the original intent.
As I asked in another post what about the actual 1st letter to the Corinthians (not the one we call 1 Cor.) Why isn't that viewed as scripture? Well, it was written to the same group by the same authoritative person. Try and come with an intelligent reply.
Nah, Im tired of your snark and have decided to just ignore what you post from here on as best I can. You made accusations against me that I have asked for you to prove but you have failed to do so. Yet you continue the snarky comments and injection of intent to posts that its obvious to anyone with any reading comprehension whatsoever wasnt there. Ill leave you with this. When a whole lot of people go missing dont believe the alien excuses.
So the letters to Corinth were for the Corinthians only...And the letters to Timothy, for only Timothy and those he preached to...
So we then have no need of those scriptures since they weren't written to anyone in America...
So when Paul said to cause these letter to be read in all the churches, he was just funnin', eh??? He didn't really mean it...