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To: kosciusko51
How do you explain the John passages that I posted before, Romans 9, as well as Titus 1:1? What do you think it means when it talks about God’s elect?

I believe that both predestination and free will exist. I believe that a few people may be predestined, but the vast majority of people come through their own free will.

Both concepts exist in Scripture. To ignore one is to ignore vast amounts of Scripture that is useful for teaching. To emphasize no free will among the general population drives people away from God--not toward Him. It also paints an incomplete, and distorted, view of God. One that isn't very nice to contemplate, or consider.

130 posted on 02/08/2013 6:19:06 AM PST by ShadowAce (Linux -- The Ultimate Windows Service Pack)
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To: ShadowAce; presently no screen name; D-fendr; DManA; Chaguito; HarleyD

OK. To get to the crux of the matter, I have some questions:

Does God save man, or does man save himself?

If God saves man, how is it done?

If man chooses God, then is not man that saves himself, and not God, but God merely offering an opportunity to be saved? And does God know who will choose him?

Where in scripture is complete free will of man shown?

Is this complete free will subservient to the will of God?

Is this free will in bondage to man’s sinful nature, or can man overcome this sinful nature on his own to seek repentance?

Does the Bible show that God chooses one man over another?


151 posted on 02/08/2013 1:31:17 PM PST by kosciusko51 (Enough of "Who is John Galt?" Who is Patrick Henry?)
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