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To: HarleyD

From the Navarre commentary:

4. For the meaning of the words of this verse see the section on our Lady in the
“Introduction” above (pp. 35ff). It should also be said that the Gospel account of
this dialogue between Jesus and his Mother does not give us his gestures, tone
of voice etc.: to us, for example, his answer sounds harsh, as if he were saying,
“This is no concern of ours”. But that was not the case.

“Woman” is a respectful title, rather like “lady” or “madam”; it is a formal way of
speaking. On the Cross Jesus will use the same word with great affection and
veneration (Jn 19:26).

[The sentence rendered “What have you to do with me?” (RSV) is the subject
of a note in RSVCE which says “while this expression always implies a diver-
gence of view, the precise meaning is to be determined by the context, which
here shows that it is not an unqualified rebuttal, still less a rebuke.” The Navarre
Spanish is the equivalent of “What has it to do with you and me?”] The sentence
“What has it to do with you and me?” is an Oriental way of speaking which can
have different nuances. Jesus’ reply seems to indicate that although in principle
it was not part of God’s plan for him to use his power to solve the problem the
wedding feast had run into, our Lady’s request moves him to do precisely that.
Also, one could surmise that God’s plan envisaged that Jesus should work the
miracle at his Mother’s request. In any event, God willed that the Revelation of
the New Testament should include this important teaching: so influential is our
Lady’s intercession that God will listen to all petitions made through her; which
is why Christian piety, with theological accuracy, has called our Lady “suppli-
cant omnipotence”.


32 posted on 01/20/2013 4:00:10 PM PST by Salvation ("With God all things are possible." Matthew 19:26)
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To: Salvation
It should also be said that the Gospel account of this dialogue between Jesus and his Mother does not give us his gestures, tone of voice etc.: ...But that was not the case. “Woman” is a respectful title, rather like “lady” or “madam”; it is a formal way of speaking.

So when our Lord Jesus was talking to the woman who committed adultery and called her "Woman", we are to assume He is giving her a respectful title? I'm not saying that He doesn't. I'm simply saying our Lord Jesus is giving her the same title as Mary.

35 posted on 01/20/2013 4:26:23 PM PST by HarleyD
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To: Salvation

“In any event, God willed that the Revelation of
the New Testament should include this important teaching: so influential is our
Lady’s intercession that God will listen to all petitions made through her; which
is why Christian piety, with theological accuracy, has called our Lady “suppli-
cant omnipotence”.

THAT is where your quote veered off the road and into a ditch.


37 posted on 01/20/2013 7:04:11 PM PST by aMorePerfectUnion (Gone rogue, gone Galt, gone international. Gone.)
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