Think theologically as John does. He writes several layers deep. We aren’t concocting things at all.
Seeing how three of four of my verses are from John, I think it’s fair to say that the author is reading into something that isn’t there. There is no indication that Jesus gave Mary special status by calling her “Woman”. He said the exact same thing about others. What specifically in the scripture would lend to that belief? It is obvious the author is prejudice.