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To: CTrent1564
I am staying on what you typed, there was a second set of statements in your post, related to the question of who was it that Mary gave birth to. Your response was “No it was Not”

Then the mistake is mine, for not expressing myself more clearly.


The second set was clearly your words, and I was repeating them (#292)

You'll get NO disagreement from me about Christ's nature.

You WILL get disagreement from me over Mary's nature.

If you maintain that MARY was sinless, to be able to give birth to a sinless Jesus; then you would, by all manner of logic, extend the same claim to Mary's mother.

And her mother's mother, and to....

It'll be turtles; all the way down.

328 posted on 12/20/2012 5:42:48 AM PST by Elsie (Heck is where people, who don't believe in Gosh, think they are not going...)
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To: Elsie

Elsie:

Mary being “sinless” was not the result of her nature, it was the result of God’s Providence and Grace which overshadowed her and empowered her to receive Christ without ever hearing him, or being preached to by the Apostles, etc.

So God was sinless because he is Divine by Nature, encapable of sin, Mary was made pure and Holy by God’s Grace. And this is where again Catholicism, and the Orthodox understanding of Grace, and the Reformed, assuming that is the tradition you follow, part ways. In the Catholic understanding, Grace is given to and infused into the inner man, and God’s Grace results in a “real communion of Love” transforming the sinner into the image of man before the fall, this is what many of the epistles refer to, 2 Peter 1:3-4 “partake divine nature”, the 1st Episte of John 3:2 “we will be like him” and St. Paul Phillipians 3:20-21 “will change our lowly bodies to conform with his glorfied body”

On this question, Catholics and Orthodox part ways with Reformed theology which is a legalist forensic system of Grace, God only covers me, but there is no room for real communion of Love. How can a God that only covers me be a God that wants to enter into a real communion with us.

And Mary is the only woman who gaive birth to a Divine Son and thus God’s special Grace only was extended to her and given that I don’t believe that Mary had any other children, that is where it stopped, not that it would apply anyway as God giving a special Grace to Mary does not mean he gave it to any “hypothetical kids” that you think she had [and again, she did not have any other kids] and no I don’t need you to post the scripture passages about James the brother of Lord, or those other passages. The word brother had many meanings in that culture and nowhere do we read, they were Mary’s Kids.


333 posted on 12/20/2012 10:21:30 AM PST by CTrent1564
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