Yesterday as I struggled to untangle this ‘mystery’ a particular phrase came to the forefront for me. “Sodom and Egypt,” the phrase is used in Revelation to describe the city where the two prophets shall lay dead in the streets. In the Bible the city of Sodom was a place of all sorts of sexual decadence's and evils. The Bereans believe the reference is to Jerusalem and the Jews. BUT, I do not see in modern times where the Jews fit this thought in the city of Jerusalem.
Biblically, when the Bible refers to whores and harlots...it is not just women. In the times the Bible was written it included both men, women, boys, and girls.
For the Bible to call this place the descriptors of “Sodom and Egypt,” if must be a great vile in the Holy City. Going back to a few rabbinical studies, Abraham and Hagar's son, Ishmael, is not a Jew. According to rabbinical studies Hagar was a Pharaoh’s daughter. The Bible is mute on this point other than to lower her status to the level of Sarah's handmaid and elevate Saraii to Sarah(princess). Ishmael is said to the the line of the Arabs and the line from which Mohammad arose. Ishmael is also recorded as giving rise to 12 tribes.
Only one of the ‘great’ religions still uses ‘sex’ as both punishment and prize. Morsi paid ‘thugs’ to go into the protests to rape this past weekend in the name of religion.
As I chased some of this down and rolled through some of the studies of theologians claiming it is Rome or the USA etc. For me it seems, it became very clear the Harlot etc. is Islam, the familial line is told to us. “in the great city of Sodom and Egypt.”
Chasing this down took me about 5 hours yesterday morning, so I didn't come to this “revelation” easily. And as it is contrary to hundreds of theological studies as well take if for what you will. But the more I consider it...the more accurately if fits.