That answer completely avoids the point that I brought up. How could this oral law, which you claim derives from Moses, have been faithfully transmitted up until the time at which the Talmud was written down, if the unfaithful Israelites barely even preserved the written law from the time of Moses? If it had not been for the miraculous intervention of God in preserving the Book of the Law in the Ark until the time of Josiah, the written law itself would have been lost! Yet, you would have us believe that this oral tradition was preserved MORE faithfully by these unfaithful generations?
A non-Jew came to Shammai and said that he wanted to convert on condition that he would accept only the Written Law. Shammai, realizing that the non-Jew was mocking him, chased him away.
The non-Jew then went to Hillel with the same condition. The first day, Hillel taught him alef, bais, gimel, dalet. The second day, he began by calling the same characters tav, shin, raish, kuf. The non-Jew objected, “But didn’t you tell me yesterday that these were alef, bais, gimel, dalet?” Hillel responded, “You see that even the names and sounds of the letters can only be understood by an oral teaching. How much more must the Torah itself be understood only through the Oral Law.”
The non-Jew then began studying completely and
honestly.
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Your answer to how the oral law was preserved is very easy to find with Google. If you are serious, you will use it.