The question of whether something was specifically addressed rahter than being able to be reasonably inferred from the context, and from the whole text of the Bible, is a separate question.
Now, maybe you are addressing a separate question, but to me the question is: Does the Bible disapprove of lesbianism, and my considered opinion is that it does.
This leaves the question of whether The Law explicitly and specifically condemns women having sexual relations with other women, and I find no example of such.
Thus we are left with "Does the Bible disapprove of lesbianism" ... and we must present a totality of evidence and general point of view argument. THAT argument, IMO, suggests that God disapproves sexual relations outside of marriage, and that marriage involves one man and one woman, and that the relationship of husband & wife is dissolved only by the death of one or the other.