But you choose to believe the entirety of the Prophecy refers only to some future Temple and future Jewish tribulation! Even when Christ said specifically that there would be those who stood there who would not taste of death until they saw Christ coming!
If you had listened to the video link I gave you, you would have learned that when Jesus said:
“Truly I say to you that there are some standing here who will not taste death before they see the Son of Man coming in His Kingdom." (Matthew 16:28)
He is referring to His transfiguration, not His second coming, as we see when we keep reading in the book of Matthew:
“And after six days Jesus took with him Peter and James and John… and led them up a high mountain apart. And He was transfigured before them, and His face shown like the sun and His garments became white as light. And behold! there appeared to them Moses and Elijah, talking with Him.” (Matthew 17:1-2)
And Peter reinforces that they saw Jesus demonstrate His kingdom at the transfiguration:
“For we did not follow cleverly devised myths when we made known to you the power and coming of our Lord Jesus Christ but we were eyewitnesses of His Majesty. For when He received honor and glory from God the Father and the voice was borne to Him by the Majestic Glory, ’this is my Beloved Son with whom I am well pleased,’ we heard this voice borne from heaven, for we were with Him on the holy mountain.” (2 Peter 1:16-18)
So the statement made by Christ in Matthew 16 was not a fulfillment of His literal second coming, but a reference to His transfiguration which took place and to which there were witnesses.
And while Jesus did prophecy the destruction of the second temple, and while that was fulfilled in 70 AD, the Bible clearly teaches that a new temple — which will be called The Third Temple — will be built in the future.
The Third Temple will exist during the Great Tribulation. Daniel refers to this temple when he says that "the prince who is to come" (the Antichrist) will enter it and stop the sacrifices in the middle of the Tribulation (Daniel 9:27). The Apostle Paul mentions it when he declares that the "man of lawlessness" will profane the temple by entering it and declaring himself to be God (2 Thessalonians 2:3-4). The Third Temple is also mentioned in the book of Revelation when John is told to measure it — a symbolic way of telling him to assess its spiritual condition (Revelation 11:1-2).
The Bible does not reveal exactly when the third temple will be built. All it says for certain is that the temple will be in existence when the Antichrist reveals himself (2 Thessalonians 2:3-4), and that will be in the middle of the Tribulation (Daniel 9:27).
So, like I said, there is neither Scriptural proof nor historical evidence for preterism. Preterism is generally the fairy tale that is required to attempt to make other false doctrines, like postmillennialism and amillennialism, work for those who don't want to believe the Scripture as God wrote it.
There is not one verse in the Bible which states that the events of the Tribulation which Jesus gave us in Matthew and Revelation happened in 70 AD and not one book ever written that states that the events detailed in Matthew and Revelation have ever happened in the history of the world.
“If you had listened to the video link I gave you, you would have learned that when Jesus said:
“Truly I say to you that there are some standing here who will not taste death before they see the Son of Man coming in His Kingdom.” (Matthew 16:28)
He is referring to His transfiguration, not His second coming, as we see when we keep reading in the book of Matthew:”
One does not need to watch a video to have someone read scripture on your behalf.
As for the quote, it is a strange thing to say “there are some standing here who will not taste of death” to see an event that was literally about to happen. If it is as you say, he would have said “all” or maybe “most,” perchance someone died of a random heart attack within the next hour or two.
It makes more sense if one is speaking of an event that wouldn’t happen until 70ad, to which only a few standing there would have lived to see, such as the Apostle John.
You are trapped, however, in this idea that the entire passage refers to the end of the world and destruction of the universe, and in accusing me of holding that all of it was fulfilled in 70ad. You have not really addressed my previous posts.
“The Third Temple will exist during the Great Tribulation. Daniel refers to this temple when he says that “the prince who is to come” (the Antichrist) will enter it and stop the sacrifices in the middle of the Tribulation (Daniel 9:27).”
Christ’s ministry was for 3 1/2 years, which in the midst of it “caused the sacrifice and the oblation” to cease with his death on the cross and the tearing of the veil. This seems to me the most natural fulfillment of the scripture. Others, however, say it was Titus, as the war began in 66ad and ended in 73, though the destruction of the temple wasn’t in the middle of the weak.
“The Apostle Paul mentions it when he declares that the “man of lawlessness” will profane the temple by entering it and declaring himself to be God (2 Thessalonians 2:3-4)”
2Th 2:3-4 Let no man deceive you by any means: for that day shall not come, except there come a falling away first, and that man of sin be revealed, the son of perdition; (4) Who opposeth and exalteth himself above all that is called God, or that is worshipped; so that he as God sitteth in the temple of God, shewing himself that he is God.
The question is, would a third temple built in Jerusalem actually be “The Temple of God?” if one understands it as literally being God’s house? After Christ’s crucifixion, none of the signs (such as the scarlet being made wide) that accompanied the Jewish sacrifice for sins were known to occur any more. The Jews were in such utter apostasy that not even the High Priest at the time of the Temple’s destruction was even legally (by God’s law) a member of the Priesthood. So, was the Temple still acknowledged by God to be His house, even as He utterly destroyed it? And would another Temple being made, performing vain sacrifices which Christ has already taken care of, ever be called The Temple of God? It itself would be an abomination of desolation, according to the biblical meaning of the phrase, an insult to Christ Himself and a crying out for vengeance.
Therefore, this scripture cannot refer to A Third Temple, as if only a legitimate Temple can fulfill it. It refers to this man putting himself above all gods. The old Puritans used to refer this scripture to the Papacy. Others to Muhammad and the Islamics. Whoever it will be, this person will NOT be sitting in the actual Temple of God.
“The Third Temple is also mentioned in the book of Revelation when John is told to measure it — a symbolic way of telling him to assess its spiritual condition (Revelation 11:1-2).”
And where is the temple of God?
Rev 11:19 And the temple of God was opened in heaven...
Here is Albert Barnes on these passages:
“And there was given me - He does not say by whom, but the connection would seem to imply that it was by the angel. All this is of course to be regarded as symbolical. The representation undoubtedly pertains to a future age, but the language is such as would be properly addressed to one who had been a Jew, and the imagery employed is such as he would be more likely to understand than any other. The language and the imagery are, therefore, taken from the temple, but there is no reason to suppose that it had any literal reference to the temple, or even that John would so understand it. Nor does the language used here prove that the temple was standing at the time when the book was written; for, as it is symbolical, it is what would be employed whether the temple were standing or not, and would be as likely to be used in the one case as in the other. It is such language as John, educated as a Jew, and familiar with the temple worship, would be likely to employ if he designed to make a representation pertaining to the church.”
“And while Jesus did prophecy the destruction of the second temple, and while that was fulfilled in 70 AD, the Bible clearly teaches that a new temple — which will be called The Third Temple — will be built in the future.”
Almost the entire passage refers to that fulfillment of Daniel’s prophecy, as well as stretching forward to Christ’s eventual coming to destroy the entire world at the end of time. We are now in “the time of the gentiles” as also predicted, wherein Jerusalem would be trodded down until the times are fulfilled.
To further support the idea that the Apostles understood “the coming of the son of man” in judgment as being fulfilled with the destruction of Jerusalem, here is Peter quoting Joel:
Act 2:16-23 But this is that which was spoken by the prophet Joel; (17) And it shall come to pass in the last days, saith God, I will pour out of my Spirit upon all flesh: and your sons and your daughters shall prophesy, and your young men shall see visions, and your old men shall dream dreams: (18) And on my servants and on my handmaidens I will pour out in those days of my Spirit; and they shall prophesy: (19) And I will shew wonders in heaven above, and signs in the earth beneath; blood, and fire, and vapour of smoke: (20) The sun shall be turned into darkness, and the moon into blood, before that great and notable day of the Lord come: (21) And it shall come to pass, that whosoever shall call on the name of the Lord shall be saved. (22) Ye men of Israel, hear these words; Jesus of Nazareth, a man approved of God among you by miracles and wonders and signs, which God did by him in the midst of you, as ye yourselves also know: (23) Him, being delivered by the determinate counsel and foreknowledge of God, ye have taken, and by wicked hands have crucified and slain:
Peter here says boldly that these “ARE THE LAST DAYS” and links them with Joel! He mentions Christ’s miracles, their sings and wonders, and links them all RIGHT THERE in THAT time, not 2,000 years hence. And this he did with the Holy Spirit having just baptized and empowered Him!
So what does the last days mean? For the modernist who does not understand these Jewish idioms, it can only refer to the end of the Jewish dispensation. That is not to say that Christ is not going to return and put an end to THIS dispensation, or that Revelation has already been fulfilled (clearly it has not). It merely means that one must be cognizant of the Jewish understanding of these prophecies, which pointed both to the end of Israel and the end of the world.
“So, like I said, there is neither Scriptural proof nor historical evidence for preterism. Preterism is generally the fairy tale that is required to attempt to make other false doctrines, like postmillennialism and amillennialism, work for those who don’t want to believe the Scripture as God wrote it.”
You falsely accuse me of these heresies. Would you accuse Matthew Henry and all the other commentators or leaders of the reformation of heresy also, when they themselves held that Christ spoke of the destruction of Jerusalem by the Roman armies in 70ad, as well as the end of the world?