Replies

You wrote:

“Can you explain to me the different linage set forth between David and Joseph (step dad of Jesus) in Mathew 1 and Luke 22 and after you get through with that irreconcilable error, would you explain why that is relevant to anything since I’m sure you will agree God was the father of Jesus.”

1) Showing the relatives of a major religious figure was always important. Hence, it was often done in the Bible. It’s as simple as that.

2) There is no error. The genealogies serve different purposes, but can be reconciled: http://www.newadvent.org/cathen/06410a.htm

“Josephs linage is a joke. Or do you think not?”

No, I don’t think it is. The genealogy in Matthew essentially is the one of his legal father, Joseph, and the one in Luke is that of his biological mother, Mary.

“If Failure to worship the Bible and Mary is a sin can I ask you— are we not forgiven of our sin ?”

First, no one worships the Bible. Second, no one here worships Mary. Third, all sins are already forgiven, but forgiveness is not applied to the sinner if he refuses to repent.

“Did Jesus not atone for our sin through propitiation on the Cross.”

Yes.

“Or did Jesus die for nothing?”

No, Jesus died for everything.

“Do we not have imputed righteousness for our sorry souls as set forth clearly and unambiguously in Romans and Galatians?”

No. Those who have faith, repent, and are obedient recieve real righteousness, not “imputed righteousness”. Protestants believe in “imputed righteousness” while historic Christians believe in something better, stronger, and more meaningful. Imputed righteousness denies scripture. How can believers be a “new creature” (2 Corinthians 5:17), or made, as white as snow (Isaiah 1:18) if righteousness is only imputed?

“Is the Bible wrong?”

No.