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To: one Lord one faith one baptism
>>was Paul the husband of one wife?<<

He was the one writing to Timothy giving the “rules” wasn’t he?

>>explain your “murder” question, in the context of the doctrine of baptism. as written, it makes no sense.<<

It’s rather easy if you listen to the Holy Spirit. The forgiveness of sins has already happened just as the murder had already happened. Baptism is a outward affirmation of what has already happened in the spirit.

2,235 posted on 12/03/2011 8:14:27 AM PST by CynicalBear
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To: CynicalBear

“Baptism is a outward affirmation of what has already happened in the spirit.”

LOL, we hear this “outward affirmation” of what has happened already story, but where do the Scriptures say this?

answer = NO WHERE

this is a 16th century tradition of men.

Peter didn’t say this in Acts 2:38, he said baptism is for the remission of sins and receiving the Holy Spirit.

he didn’t be baptized as an “outward affirmation”, did he?

Paul wasn’t told to be baptized in Acts 22:16 as an “outward affirmation” , was he?

no, Paul tells us in Galatians 3:27 , baptism places us “into Christ”

if anyone brings a different Gospel, let him BE ACCURSED.

I look forward to you showing me from the Scriptures where baptism was ever said to be an “outward affirmation”

cue the crickets.........


2,238 posted on 12/03/2011 8:33:40 AM PST by one Lord one faith one baptism
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