[Avalon Hussar]

Start with Colossians 1:24 (here is one case where I would say go to the Greek or the RSV. The KJV has it wrong.) This is an amazing text. Clearly Paul of all people is persuaded that there is nothing lacking in the sacrifice or the sufferings of Christ. He also knows that, of himself, he cannot produce the sinless nature that you describe, rightly, as necessary to pay the debt of atonement. So how can we take the text seriously in the light of Paul's other teaching? I think the key is Paul's “Now I live, yet not I, but Christ lives in me.” Do you see where I'm headed?

I've looked this over in the Greek and the RSV as you asked and maybe I'm just not getting what you're driving at here. What has this got to do with Mary's status as Co-Redemptrix?

[Mad Dawg]

The objection to Mary sharing in redemptive work is, IMHO, in the same “family” as the objection to Paul’s making up what is lacking in the sufferings of Christ

There is nothing lacking, and how could a sinner make it up if there were? Yet here we have the text.

So, I think the answer to one is likely to be in the same family as the answer to the other.

And, as I have said so many times on this thread that I’m afraid of being ridiculous, the answer is that it is not just Mary or just Paul. It is them in Christ, and Christ in them.

This is at least 5,000 word paper stuff, which is why I end up being so elliptical.