Posted on 09/02/2011 9:07:47 AM PDT by marshmallow
Minneapolis, Minnesota (CNN) Prior to 2006, few people even knew that then-Minnesota state legislator Keith Ellison was a Muslim. Because of his English name, he said, no one thought to ask.
But five years ago, when he ran for a seat in the United States House of Representatives - a race he would go on to win - word of his religious affiliation began to spread.
When I started running for Congress it actually took me by surprise that so many people were fascinated with me being the first Muslim in Congress, said Ellison, a Democrat now serving his third term in the House.
But someone said to me, Look Keith, think of a person of Japanese origin running for Congress six years after Pearl Harborthis might be a news story.
Though Ellison's status as the first Muslim elected to Congress is widely known, fewer are aware that he was born into a Catholic family in Detroit and was brought up attending Catholic schools.
But he said he was never comfortable with that faith.
I just felt it was ritual and dogma, Ellison said. Of course, thats not the reality of Catholicism, but its the reality I lived. So I just kind of lost interest and stopped going to Mass unless I was required to.
It wasnt until he was a student at Wayne State University in Detroit when Ellison began, looking for other things.
(Excerpt) Read more at religion.blogs.cnn.com ...
I believe your references here are to God, not the ark.
Your typology of ark/Christ would make your criticism here even worse, so there's an inconsistency in your argument in this post.
The only requirement for Mary in Scripture was that she be a virgin until after she gave birth. The prophecy in Isaiah was that a virgin will conceive and bear a son.
It happened. Prophecy fulfilled.
The fact that Mary DIED is proof enough that she was subject to the FULL penalty of sin. Rom. 6:23, Gen. 2:17, 3:19.
Which leads to the next point. If the Virgin Mary had an inherited sin nature (which she most certainly did), she could not bring forth a pure offspring.
"The Holy Ghost shall come upon thee, and the power of THE HIGHEST, shall overshadow thee; therefore also that 'Holy Thing' which shall be born of thee shall be called the Son of God." Luke 1:35.
I think this is pretty clear that the embryo that was deposited in the womb of the Virgin Mary by the Holy Ghost contained no taint of sin, and that Mary's womb was SIMPLY THE VEHICLE FOR THE FORMATION OF THE HUMAN BODY OF CHRIST. Into which the "Spirit of Christ" entered AT BIRTH and THUS WAS FORMED THE GOD-MAN.
Since the sin nature comes through the father, that is the case.
But if someone believes that sin comes through the woman, then there’s problems.
My question is, if Jesus Himself could not inhabit a sinful womb because He was pure and sinless, then how could Mary inhabit a sinful womb (her mother’s) and be immaculately conceived and remain pure and sinless? For Mary to be pure wouldn’t her mother then have needed to be pure and sinless?
And if God could do this for Mary, that is-having her conceived without sin in the normal sinful human body of her mother’s, then why couldn’t He have done it for Jesus with Mary being the normal sinful human being?
Whatever Catholics claim God did for Mary to preserve her free from the stain of sin from her mother, He could have done for Jesus to preserve Him from the stain of sin from Mary.
To be absent from the body is to be present with the Lord Paul 2 Cor. 5
But an important part it is!
They love to quote james so much ..
James 2:10 And whosoever shall keep the whole law, but offend in one point, is become guilty of all.
1 John 3:4 Whosoever committeth sin transgresseth also the law: for sin is the transgression of the law.
That is the problem of doctrine with no sure foundational truth.. After a while their doctrine starts to contradict itself
That would certainly be what I believe. Thats exactly what made Him fully man and still fully God.
It’s always just a matter of time and Scripture before the floor beneath them begins to shift and gives way. A person can only cart around so much extra-Biblical “stuff” before the strain becomes too much on the cart wheels.
Did she die? Then she sinned. The penalty for sin is death.
So you are saying that after Ezekiel in chapter 38-39 describes how the Jewish people will be re gathered into Israel and Gog and Magog will be drawn by God to attack Israel in a battle that God Himself defeats Israels enemies. Then goes through chapters 40, 41,42, and 43 describing the New Temple He changes in chapter 44 and begins to reference Mary even though Hes still describing the Temple? Then in verse 4 again describes the Temple but also in verse 5 talks about marking well those going in and going out?
5 And the LORD said unto me, Son of man, mark well, and behold with thine eyes, and hear with thine ears all that I say unto thee concerning all the ordinances of the house of the LORD, and all the laws thereof; and mark well the entering in of the house, with every going forth of the sanctuary.
Are you kidding me? If you think verse 1-3 are talking about Mary it looks like there were many going in and going out for them to be able to mark well the number of them. If verse 1-3 is talking about Mary there were a lot going in and going out.
Whoa! In Nicene type thinking it was the Son who was incarnate.
Whoa! In Nicene type thinking it was the Son who was incarnate. You have my attention. Would you say the Father suffered?
Did I not respond to this? Did anyone offer a refutation of my response?
Right???
That pretty much sums up what the scriptures tell us except the scriptures didn't add your words or suggest that God used Mary and discarded her...
I see no reason for the soul of Mary not to be in heaven...Bible doesn't tell us either way, does it...
And people complain about how WE use language?
Now for some facts. When I ask a saint in heaven to pray for me,I also address petitions on the same matter to God. So what, exactly, is the difference as regards intercession?
I didn't realize I was communicating so poorly...Metmon didn't seem to have a problem understanding what I said...
The dictionary term for intercessor is to act as a mediator...I don't need a mediator...I don't ask any one to be an intercessor for me (except for the Holy Spirit) since no one has that ability and I don't need it anyway......I do not accept as biblical (or true) that any saint or Saint is an intercessor for anyone...
I of course love for other Christians to pray TO GOD for me but never as a mediator between me and Jesus (God)...There is no such thing...
2 Cor. 5:8 We are confident, I say, and would prefer to be away from the body and at home with the Lord.
For we must all appear before the judgment seat of Christ, so that each of us may receive what is due us for the things done while in the body, whether good or bad.
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