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Mormons often argue that Melchizedek’s priesthood must have been part of an order that could be passed from one generation to the next because Psalm 110:4 (and its quotations in Hebrews) refers to “the order of Melchizedek.”

MUST be?

All MORMON analysis and interpretation of the bible is highly tainted.

1. By suggesting that the bible itself contains error⁽¹⁾ (without ever actually pointing any out), and
2. The fact that MORMONism was started by two 'Personages' alledged to be God the Father (with a physical body) and His son JESUS: Two beings which are accurately described in the BIBLE as being Angels of Light - preaching a different gospel.

Why any Christians would even waste their time listening to MORMONic explanations of 'scripture' is beyond me!

(1) Article of Faith #8
We believe the Bible to be the word of God as far as it is translated correctly...

What does LDS Scripture at Doctrine and Covenants 84:21-22 say a man must have before he can see God?

“And without the ordinances thereof, and the authority of the Priesthood, the power of godliness is not manifest unto men in the flesh; For without this no man can see the face of God, even the Father, and live.”—Doctrine and Covenants 84:21-22

Hmmmmmm, so how did smith see the face of God in 1820 and live not having the priesthood authority?