That doesn't matter. The Jews who created the septugine were translating the Hebrew scriptures and THEY thought the word in question meant "virgin" as used in Isaiah 7:14, therefore when they tranaslated the word into Greek they chose the specific word for virgin. This becomes more signigicant when one realizes that in the second century both Origen and Tertullian warned that the Jews were changing the wording of their Hebrew scriptures to water down the prophecies of Christ.
You wrote:
“That doesn’t matter.”
Even you suggested it did: “Then why did 70 of the best Hebrew scholars translate it as “virgin” in the Septuagint?”
You are clearly implying that the two (Masoretic text and Septuagint) are not the same. If they are not the same text - and they are not - then they will be translated differently when translated accurately.
“The Jews who created the septugine were translating the Hebrew scriptures and THEY thought the word in question meant “virgin” as used in Isaiah 7:14, therefore when they tranaslated the word into Greek they chose the specific word for virgin.”
As already noted by me: “Most likely they believed that was a better translation according to traditional understandings that had developed since the text was originally inspired.”
The problem is that he word gives no indication of meaning “virgin” when it was first written. What people viewed to mean centuries later does not affect or effect the original text. Texts do not work backword into time. You do realize that, right?
“This becomes more signigicant when one realizes that in the second century both Origen and Tertullian warned that the Jews were changing the wording of their Hebrew scriptures to water down the prophecies of Christ.”
ANd yet there is no evidence Isaiah 7:14 was ever watered down by anyone.