“Being a visionary temple, Ezekiel did not have access to it because it existed only in a vision, and there is no indication that it was ever designed to be built.”
Let me get this straight... both John and Ezekiel saw a temple in a vision from God, but John’s temple must be the real, currently existing temple, while Ezekiel’s is assumed to only exist in a vision? I’m not following the logic there...
Ezekiel saw a visionary temple, one that did not exist. John saw the actual temple in a vision and was told to measure it.
See the difference? Futurists usually gloss over such details.