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To: Boogieman
Let me get this straight... both John and Ezekiel saw a temple in a vision from God, but John’s temple must be the real, currently existing temple, while Ezekiel’s is assumed to only exist in a vision? I’m not following the logic there...

Ezekiel saw a visionary temple, one that did not exist. John saw the actual temple in a vision and was told to measure it.

See the difference? Futurists usually gloss over such details.

17 posted on 02/08/2011 8:53:26 AM PST by topcat54 ("Dispensationalism -- an error of Biblical proportions.")
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To: topcat54

“Ezekiel saw a visionary temple, one that did not exist. John saw the actual temple in a vision and was told to measure it.

See the difference?”

No, where in the text does it say that John’s temple is the actual temple that was existing at that time? Just saying that there are people milling about in the temple in the vision doesn’t establish any such thing.


59 posted on 02/09/2011 9:20:03 AM PST by Boogieman
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