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To: metmom

There may be some difference in the RC construct, but in addition, when God wants us to know that someone or something is pure and without sin than He tells us in a way that is not problematically derived.

“Which of you convinceth me of sin? And if I say the truth, why do ye not believe me? “ (John 8:46)

“Who did no sin, neither was guile found in his mouth: “ (1 Peter 2:22)

“For he hath made him to be sin for us, who knew no sin; that we might be made the righteousness of God in him. “ (2 Corinthians 5:21)

“For such an high priest became us, who is holy, harmless, undefiled, separate from sinners, and made higher than the heavens; “ (Hebrews 7:26)

“The law of the LORD is perfect, converting the soul: the testimony of the LORD is sure, making wise the simple. {8} The statutes of the LORD are right, rejoicing the heart: the commandment of the LORD is pure, enlightening the eyes. {9} The fear of the LORD is clean, enduring for ever: the judgments of the LORD are true and righteous altogether. “ (Psalms 19:7-9)

The question is, if God could God bring forth His pure word thru men who were sinners, though overall holy, (2Pet. 1:20-21) then almighty God could do the same as regards Mary. And such esp. ought to be allowed if transubstantiation is believed, even so far as that the blood of Jesus was in the stomachs of the (kosher) apostles while Jesus was sitting or reclining next to them.


6,901 posted on 01/07/2011 8:12:30 PM PST by daniel1212 ( "Repent ye therefore, and be converted, that your sins may be blotted out," Acts 3:19)
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To: daniel1212
An interesting, thoughtful post. God brought forth His Word through men in quite a different way than Jesus the Word borne by Mary. Jesus was/is God hence the nature of the protection to the womb to fill it with grace and eliminate sin from it to keep it safe from the all-Good power in the presence of which no sin can hold

And yet in communion, this presence is quite of a lesser degree than what Mary bore, you have to admit, though both being the Body. however, in this case as well, we require Grace freely given by God to be able to accept this gift of His. As St. Paul in 1 Cor 11:27 brands the unworthy recipient as "guilty of body and of the blood of the Lord". There can be no question of a grievous offense against Christ Himself unless we suppose that the true Body and the true Blood of Christ are really present in the Eucharist. Without the grace of God, the recipient does grievous assault to himself.
6,942 posted on 01/09/2011 10:16:52 PM PST by Cronos (Bobby Jindal 2012)
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