Posted on 09/27/2010 6:17:08 PM PDT by bibletruth
Let's start by observing the Scriptures in John
John 1:1 In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.
This is a clear reference to Jesus Christ, before His in the flesh ministry, that He was always before God the Father together with His Spirit.
So then, what are the so called sayings of Jesus? If every word proceeds from the Word of God (Jesus) then every Scripture is the Words of Jesus Christ. Some before His earthly ministry, some during His in the flesh ministry, and all those Words from Acts through Revelation.
In my Bible, I would logically color "red" ALL words from Genesis to Revelation as the Word of God and the Lord Jesus Christ.
Ok... A point of clarification. “Every time I pray it is a re-baptism of Spirit. Too bad most folks can’t see the swirling white light that indicates the presence of the Holy Spirit.
I say this based upon experience, not scripture.
Actually, I looked at the post again, and I understand your point perfectly. I agree.
Philip preaching the things concerning the kingdom of God, and the name of Jesus Christ - this is exactly what Philip was commissioned to perform via the believing Jews in Jerusalem (Peter, James, Matthew, John, etc); and from Christ in the closing chapters of the Gospels. Philip was commissioned as any faithful Jewish believer in Jesus to preach the things concerning the kingdom of God, and in the name of Jesus Christ; this is the Gospels were he and the Jerusalem saints were to do: i.e., preach the kingdom of God in the name of Jesus Christ. And to baptize as per Jewish baptism. Remember, Jesus was a Jew! So when Jesus referred to baptism, He only meant Jewish baptism as prescribed in the Old Testament: water.
These are all truths that cannot be denied.
But, when God and the glorified Jesus Christ raised up the apostle Paul in Acts 9; Paul neither went into Jerusalem to confer with Peter, James:
Galatians 2:9 And when James, Cephas, and John, who seemed to be pillars, perceived the grace that was given unto me, they gave to me and Barnabas the right hands of fellowship; that we should go unto the heathen, and they unto the circumcision.
Paul did not receive his commission from Peter (Cephas), James, Matthew, John, or any of the 12 apostles; he received his grace gospel directly from the glorified Christ Jesus; and was taught by God via Christ Jesus for some 14 years [Galatians 2:1] before Paul went to Jerusalem to visit Peter and James. See also 2 Cor 12:2
We further see in Galatians that Peter and those Jewish believers in Jesus were to continue to preach the kingdom of God to the circumcision (Jews).
Galatians 2:7 But contrariwise, when they saw that the gospel of the uncircumcision was committed unto me, as the gospel of the circumcision was unto Peter; 8 (For he that wrought effectually in Peter to the apostleship of the circumcision, the same was mighty in me toward the Gentiles:)
Now at this point, Paul's ministry was the gospel of grace and without water baptism; although he did baptism some, but Paul explicitly said:
1 Cor 1:17 For Christ sent me not to baptize, but to preach the gospel: not with wisdom of words, lest the cross of Christ should be made of none effect.
This is where Spirit baptism come into the picture via Paul's grace gospel to the Gentiles. Praise God for HIS grace message via the Apostle Paul for the uncircumcision which was committed unto Paul for my sake.
**Had the man on the cross next to Jesus been Baptized?**
Jesus was still alive, and the Law still observed: “For a testament is of force after men are dead: otherwise it is of no strength at all while the testator LIVETH.” Hebrews 9:17
**From what I’ve read, Jesus didn’t care so much for all the legalisms.**
He didn’t care for MAN made, self righteous laws added to the laws of God. After healing a leper, Jesus commanded: “See thou say nothing to any man: but go thy way, shew thyelf to the priest, and offer for thy cleansing those things which Moses commanded, for a testimony unto them.” Mark 1:44
**And for what it’s worth, I have been baptized.**
OK, was it the scriptural, New Testament way, as found in Acts 2:38?
The page that says ‘New Testament’ in your Bible is placed in the location where the Hebrew text ends, and the Greek begins. Notice that Jesus only met with those closest to him before ascending to heaven, and in his last meeting with them told them to tarry in Jerusalem for the promise of the Father (the Holy Ghost). Some days later came the outpouring of the Holy Ghost (the ‘new and living way’).
So, ‘New Testament’ really takes full effect beginning with the book of Acts.
Perhaps he had been baptized. Perhaps John Baptist had baptized him, and perhaps he had stood in the water with John and confessed the sin and offense against the law for which he was later condemned and crucified.
Or, perhaps the man had not actually committed any offense other than one of a political nature against the Roman Empire. I say this with full realization that the Scripture does label him a "malefactor." We do not know the nature of the offense, or against whom, that put him on a cross.
What we do know is that he recognized the King-ship of Christ and that Christ would come in a Kingdom. He had prior knowledge of what Messiahship meant, and just Who was the Messiah.
We know that the man was not baptized in water between his dying confession of Christ and his bodily death. The Bible does not tell us whether he had ever been baptized in water.
Very good and informative.
Does that mean a person is going to hell if they haven’t been baptized?
Jesus also said that those that believed in him would have everlasting life.
I am obviously not a theologian so I am not disagreeing. I am only asking an opinion.
You would have to do some sufficient accurate cross-referencing between water baptism and priesthood in the post-resurrection dispensation to make this point.
Do you HAVE the original document?
Would you please scan any portion of it and allow us to have a look?
Any practice before the book of Acts is in reality, Jewish kingdom saints operating correctly on the kingdom commission prescribed by Jesus Christ during His earthly ministry and immediately after His Resurrection. This ALL pertains to Jewish kingdom commission to only the lost sheep of Israel, and a few Gentile converts, most true. But if someone continues to practice law observance and kingdom preaching - before the book of Acts - then this practice is now part of the former dispensation, not today's dispensation of the grace of God
Eph 2:10 That in the dispensation of the fulness of times he might gather together in one all things in Christ, both which are in heaven and which are on earth; even in him.
But after Acts 9: a new gospel of grace 'commission' was given to the Apostle Paul to preach to both Jew and Gentile; and to break down the middle wall of partition between Jew and Gentile.
Eph 2:14 For he is our peach, who hath made both one, and hath broken down the middle wall of partition between us
It appears that you have made this a cuacus to no avail.
Luke 23:34 - Then said Jesus, Father, forgive them; for they know not what they do. And they parted his raiment, and cast lots.
Jesus even asked for the forgiveness of those that crucified him. Thankfully, we have a forgiving Lord.
I have studied manuscript evidence and know for sure that the so called newer Greek manuscripts to not exist in their book format from from Matthew to Revelation. Rather, they are a piecing together of hundreds of fragments of what I believe is corrupt manuscripts from some men who even denied the Deity of Christ! God Forbid that I would trust men who denied the Deity of Christ and would piece together corrupt manuscripts and say that these are more accurate...
So I too ask you to show me the original documents...
But be sure to show me Matthew to Revelation.
Precise ping...
KJV only?
Not those who read the original Greek?
Christ is the head of the Body of Christ - all true believers. And Christ is the head of the church - all true believers. This is Biblical as seen in Colossians:
Colossians 1:18 And he [Christ] is the head of the body, the church: who is the beginning, the firstborn from the dead; that in all things he might have the preeminence.
If you deny that Christ is the head of the Body, the Church, which is HIS body; then you have denied HIS preeminence - God Forbid! Never I'm my former sinner's life would I even contemplate to deny HIS preeminence. Or maybe you think that your church has replaced Christ's preeminence; but in so thinking, you have denied the preeminence of Christ as Head over the Church and you have made preeminence out of a building, rather than the glory of Christ's preeminence!
Ephesians 5:23 For the husband is the head of the wife, even as Christ is the head of the church: and he is the saviour of the body.
Christ is the head of the Church, which is the Body of Christ consisting of true Bible believing Christians.
These truths are evident in Scripture. Ephesians 4:15 may [we] grow up into him [Christ] in all things, which is the head, even Christ.
**Baptism does not save anybody, but it is a sign of acceptance of salvation.**
Really? Jesus commanded water baptism: “Verily, verily, I ay unto thee, Except a MAN be born of water (no comma) and of the Spirit, he cannot enter into the kingdom of God. That which is born of flesh is flesh; and that which is born of Spirit is spirit.” John 3:5,6 Notice that the Lord did NOT say: “that which is born of water is flesh”.
Those that think that the ‘water’ means natural birth are insulting the intellingence of the Lord and Nicodemas. Jesus certainly didn’t have to explain that someone has to be naturally born first, that’s obvious. If you haven’t been naturally born, you don’t exist. (If someone still believes that the ‘water’ means natural birth, I certainly don’t think I could drink that ‘solution’.)
Jesus commanded his disciples to baptise in Matt. 28:19, Mark 16:16, and alluded to it by commanding them in Luke 24:47 “that repentance and remission of sins should be preached in his NAME among all nations, beginning at Jerusalem”. So, starting in Jerusalem, the disciples followed his orders, beginning with Peter in Acts 2:38, who commanded: “Repent, and be baptized EVERY ONE of you in the NAME of Jesus Christ for the REMISSION of SINS, and ye shall receive the gift of the Holy Ghost.”
There are several accounts in Acts of converts being baptized. The apostles were very strict about it.
But be sure to show me original documents from Matthew to Revelation.
I am not impressed by scholars who read the original Greek manuscripts. I have many scholar commentaries (numbering over 50) and I have often found that their respect of God's Word is unchristian, sometimes even to the point to deny the Deity of Christ. Why should I be impressed with someone who says that they read the original Greek documents?
**Clearly now it is most probable, based upon Scripture in the Word of God in John, that the baptism which the Apostle Paul mentioned in Romans 6, is the baptism which the Apostle John in John 1 mentioned.**
Zzzztt!! Wrong. In Acts 19 we read that Paul met ‘certain disciples’ in Ephesus, asked them if they had “received the Holy Ghost since ye believed”. He found they had been baptized “unto John’s baptism. He then baptized them in the NAME of the Lord Jesus. Then he laid his hands on them and they received the Holy Ghost and prophesied.
Disclaimer: Opinions posted on Free Republic are those of the individual posters and do not necessarily represent the opinion of Free Republic or its management. All materials posted herein are protected by copyright law and the exemption for fair use of copyrighted works.