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To: Godzilla; Colofornian; Elsie; BlueMoose; restornu; svcw; SZonian; ejonesie22; reaganaut
The concept of theosis is open to interpretation and there exist more than one understanding of the conception of theosis see: Theosis

Godzilla has made the mistake of confusing apotheosis with theosis. This is a common error, but one that can be remedied.

Please take the time to read the definitions found on Wikipedia, they are fascinating and intriguing.

As we think about theosis we must understand that it is a man-influenced belief. Clearly, the Scriptures indicate that as Godzilla has accurately posted Jesus is God, before ever being born on earth.

John 1:1* ¶ In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. 2 The same was in the beginning with God. 3* All things were made by him; and without him was not any thing made that was made.

How do the LDS interpret this? In the pre-mortal existence (see Jeremiah 1:5) Jesus Christ accepted the Divine Will of Heavenly Father and agreed to be the Savior, this action begin the human adventure the successful culmination of which is theosis. See:

Isaiah 14:12

Moses 1:39

Abraham 3

These last two scriptures are not Biblical. They are from the scriptures that the LDS have due to continuing revelation from living prophets. Just like the Catholics, the LDS have additional scriptures not used by Reformers.

I really do want to continue this thoughtful discussion, but I have work to do. Let's take it up at a later date once you've had some time to read and meditate on this.

431 posted on 08/23/2010 8:15:44 PM PDT by 1010RD (First Do No Harm)
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To: 1010RD
These last two scriptures are not Biblical. They are from the scriptures that the LDS have due to continuing revelation from living prophets. Just like the Catholics, the LDS have additional scriptures not used by Reformers.

Uh...

Except that JS got his by exceptional means; that PERFECTLY fit the BIBLICAL description of Angels of Light and Satanic miracles!

434 posted on 08/24/2010 4:10:42 AM PDT by Elsie
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To: Godzilla; 1010RD
Jesus is God...

Not a god, not “like god”...

Jesus is God.

Even on the midst of the twisting of his word and the deceit of the heretics the truth of the one Truine God shines forth.

Amazing isn't Zilla...

437 posted on 08/24/2010 5:56:37 AM PDT by ejonesie22 (Christians: Stand for Christ or stand aside...)
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To: 1010RD; ejonesie22; Colofornian; aMorePerfectUnion
Godzilla has made the mistake of confusing apotheosis with theosis. This is a common error, but one that can be remedied.

Sorry 10, but you are mistating what I posted big time. In #389 I stated

Provide a definition of theosis 10 and we'll see just how close it comes to mormon Apotheosis

You are the one confusing the two terms 10. I also presented the definition of theosis from an orthodox site. It is from http://orthodoxwiki.org/Theosis

Theosis - (“deification,” “divinization”) is the process of a worshiper becoming free of hamártía (“missing the mark”), being united with God, beginning in this life and later consummated in bodily resurrection. For Orthodox Christians, Théōsis (see 2 Pet. 1:4) is salvation. Théōsis assumes that humans from the beginning are made to share in the Life or Nature of the all-holy Trinity. Therefore, an infant or an adult worshiper is saved from the state of unholiness (hamartía — which is not to be confused with hamártēma “sin”) for participation in the Life (zōé, not simply bíos) of the Trinity — which is everlasting. This is not to be confused with the heretical (apotheosis)

Now this is to be compared with the definition of apotheosis -

(1) Apotheosis (from Greek “to deify”), deification or divinization is the glorification of an individual to a divine level.

Essentially “Deification in God’s Essence“, which is imparticipable according to both the Bible and the definition of theosis. One will find that this is the process known in mormonism as exaltation - becoming a god.

Now get back with your little schoolroom buddies and try to scratch together a more logical composition, otherwise cite me correctly - lying doesn't gain you any points sonny.

Clearly, the Scriptures indicate that as Godzilla has accurately posted Jesus is God, before ever being born on earth.

The fact is that John 1:1 proves not only that Jesus was God before coming to the earth, it goes to prove the Trinitarian concept of God.

How do the LDS interpret this? In the pre-mortal existence (see Jeremiah 1:5) Jesus Christ accepted the Divine Will of Heavenly Father and agreed to be the Savior, this action begin the human adventure the successful culmination of which is theosis. See:

Digging yourself in deeper. LDS interpretation is flawed - particularly when the passage is examined in the Greek. LDS exaltation REQUIRES life as a human to prove yourself and to follow ALL the eternal principles. Therefore, according to lsd doctrine Jesus should never have attained godhood in a premortal life. Jeremiah fails to support this claim on two counts 1) God is speaking to Jeremiah, not Jesus and 2) the context is an all knowing God - one who knows the future - the context and characteristic of God who can know Jeremiah even before he was born - no pre-mortal existence required. The other verses fail to support the claim as well, particularly from the spurious writings of smith (moses and abraham) which are not accepted as being inspired by anything other than satan.

I really do want to continue this thoughtful discussion, but I have work to do. Let's take it up at a later date once you've had some time to read and meditate on this.

You need the time to mediate on this junior, and sharpen you pencil even more, because I haven't even broken a sweat in replying to you - they are so bogus on the face of things.

441 posted on 08/24/2010 6:02:01 PM PDT by Godzilla ( 3-7-77)
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