And yet Hebrews 1 does indicate that Jesus was superior to the angels, what abotu John 8:24
John 8:24? You might be a bit more specific.
John chapter seven tells of Jesus going to the temple and how many comments were made about who he was, some saying since the rulers hadn't said he is the Christ Jesus couldn't be him.(vs. 26)They repeated a error saying when the Christ came no one would know from whence yet they knew where Jesus was from. (vs. 27).
In vss. 28, 29 Jesus says they know where is from, he didn't come of his own initiative but was sent forth.
In vss. 40-44 some said he was the Christ, The Prophet, others that no, the Christ wasn't to come from Galilee, others said yes, since Jesus came from Bethlehem of David.
In chapter eight Jesus says either they, the Pharisees, believe that Jesus was “he” or they would die in their sins.
“He” is who? Why the Christ! (John 8:24)
In vs. 26, Jesus says he that sent him is true and what Jesus spoke came from that one.
The Pharisees simply could not conceive that someone they held in such contempt could have come from the Father.(vs.27)
Once again Jesus is in a subordinate position to his Father, he is sent forth, he doesn't speak of his own initiative but rather what the Father taught him.
Had the Son been equal to the Father what could the Father teach the Son? Had the Son been co-eternal with the Father what would there be that would not be fully known to both?