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To: Iscool
2 Corinthians 5:21
"For our sake he made him to be sin who knew no sin, so that in him we might become the righteousness of God. "
does not mean that God made Christ to be a sinner. As it clearly says "who knew no sin" -- Christ was not a sinner and knew no sin. In other words, he knew no sin by His own experience. He had no personal guilt. He was without any blame or sinful corruption whatsoever.

And Paul isn't suggesting that the character of Christ was changed at the cross. Any claim that Christ "became a sinner" on the cross, or that he took on Himself corruption and guilt in such a way that He ceased being righteous and was, in effect, a transgressor like us is incorrect as that is not what the scripture says

Hebrews 7:26 says
"26Such a high priest meets our need—one who is holy, blameless, pure, set apart from sinners, exalted above the heavens."
The cross changed nothing of His innocent character. He was not made into a wicked person, nor was He in any way tainted by sin. He died as "a lamb without blemish and without spot." And this expression doesn't mean anything that would change that truth. Those who teach that Christ became "sinful" on the cross have misunderstood how our sins were imputed to Him.

The meaning of the expression is explained by the prophecy of Isaiah 53:6:
"All we like sheep have gone astray; we have turned every one to his own way; and the LORD hath laid on him the iniquity of us all."
, in the words of Isaiah 53:4:
"He hath borne our griefs, and carried our sorrows."
There's actually a parallel expression in Galatians 3:13:
"Christ hath redeemed us from the curse of the law, being made a curse for us."
God the Father treated His own Son as if He represented that mass of sin—as if He were the pure, distilled essence of everything Our Holy God cannot endure—as if He were the very personification of everything God must judge with an outpouring of divine wrath and banish from His presence.

Christ drank that cup of wrath "for us." That's what this verse means. "(God) made Him to be sin for us."

Christ did not inherit original sin. That is clear in what scripture says.
6,943 posted on 08/05/2010 8:22:41 AM PDT by Cronos (Omnia mutantur, nihil interit. "Allah": Satan's current status)
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To: Cronos
Christ did not inherit original sin. That is clear in what scripture says.

That is not clear from scripture at all...

God took on human flesh so that He would be like as we are...

No one could have killed His flesh had he not had the same corruptible body as we have...

Jesus suffered pain...Pain is the result of the fall of Adam and Eve...

Jesus endured temptation...He wasn't immune to it...

If the body of Jesus didn't have original sin, then he wasn't like us at all...He only looked like us...

None of the verses you posted suggest differently...

That does throw a monkey wrench into your gears tho...That means Mary couldn't have been sinlesss...

7,028 posted on 08/05/2010 11:10:26 AM PDT by Iscool (I don't understand all that I know...)
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