The Lord was speaking thru Moses as God gave him utterance...you can decide the truth or falsity of that statement between youself and that which you consider a deity if you wish.
Moses was not saying “I” meaning “himself” would raise up...God, thru Moses was speaking of himself...Look at verse 17...”17.And the LORD said unto me, They have well spoken that which they have spoken”....then look at the rest of it...”I will raise them up a Prophet from among their brethren and will put My words in his mouth; and he shall speak unto them all that I shall command Him. And it shall come to pass, that whosoever will not hearken unto my words which he shall speak in my name, I will require it of him” (Deut. 18:18-19)”
Moses was quoting God who was speaking of his son...
Need further proof that this verse relates to Jesus...Look at what Jesus says...”I have not spoken on My own, but the Father who sent Me has Himself given Me a commandment
about what to say and what to speak. And I know that His commandment is eternal life. What
I speak, therefore, I speak just as the Father has told Me” (John 12:49-50).
Look at the parallels between the Mosaic prophecy in which God the father says..”I will put my words in His Mouth and he will speak what I command him... and what Jesus says” I will speak just as the father has told me!”
Jesus was demonstrating that He and only He was the fullfillment of Moses’ prophecy from Deut 18!!!
The OT in deed is shot thru and thru with the savory presence of Christ !!!!
Praise God from whom all blessings flow!!! Praise Him for the gift of Himself thru the spilt blood of Jesus and His poured out Spirit ....and his words will never pass away!!!
So, where does it say in the OT that this Lord was Jesus as the NT claims?
Look at the parallels between the Mosaic prophecy in which God the father says..”I will put my words in His Mouth and he will speak what I command him... and what Jesus says” I will speak just as the father has told me!”
Well, isn't that a coincidnece or, maybe, a self-fulfilling prophesy! If I were building up a case, like the authors of the NT were, I would be using the same parallels.
Need further proof that this verse relates to Jesus...(John 12:49-50).
Do you even know when and why John's Gospel was written?