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To: mdmathis6; Theo
The Lord was speaking thru Moses as God gave him utterance...

So, where does it say in the OT that this Lord was Jesus as the NT claims?

Look at the parallels between the Mosaic prophecy in which God the father says..”I will put my words in His Mouth and he will speak what I command him... and what Jesus says” I will speak just as the father has told me!”

Well, isn't that a coincidnece or, maybe, a self-fulfilling prophesy! If I were building up a case, like the authors of the NT were, I would be using the same parallels.

Need further proof that this verse relates to Jesus...(John 12:49-50).

Do you even know when and why John's Gospel was written?

343 posted on 06/17/2010 11:31:49 AM PDT by kosta50 (The world is the way it is even if YOU don't understand it)
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To: kosta50

As I said before...you have to decide if it was a self fullfilling prophecy or not between that which you consider to be your soul and your version of deity! I already know what I believe!

I notice you don’t even mention the Abraham and Isaac example I gave where God practically is giving his plan away some 2000 years before “the righteous prince” would be cut off.

As for your question about John, I was responding to your questions about whether Moses ever spoke of the coming messiah. I’m sure you have rather colorful explanations about John and when it was written...perhaps you’ll regale us with masterful wisdom on that subject at some point! All of the word of God is taken by faith...Paul said “For we know in part and believe in part...as in a glass darkly”

I gave you a Prophetic utterance by Moses and pointed out its possible fullfillment in the NT, and you still strain at gnats and swallow camels. Kosta50, you either believe it or you don’t and that is between you and your maker. As for me, let me state...”Blessed is He who comes in the name of the Lord!”


349 posted on 06/17/2010 1:49:39 PM PDT by mdmathis6 (Mike Mathis is my name,opinions are my own,subject to flaming when deserved!)
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