And the Jews for Judaism say with equal conviction and apparent authority (all emphases are mine):
You then state "This is effective atonement when the recipients of the benefits gained through the sacrifice confess their guilt and recognize that one has died for them (53:4-6) and when the sovereign agrees to recognize the atoning effect (53:10-12)."
And the article replies:
Hebrew Isaiah is an impeccable copy of the earlier copies found at Qumran, so I would say it must be a translational issue, or intentional, deliberate alteration of the Hebrew text by Christian scribes for doctrinal purposes.
[author's note] 53:10 "He will prolong his days." Not only did Jesus die young, but how could the days be prolonged of someone who is alleged to be God?
53:11 "With his knowledge the righteous one, my Servant, will cause many to be just." Note again the correct translation: the Servant will cause many to be just, he will not "justify the many."
The Jewish mission is to serve as a "light to the nations" which will ultimately lead the world to a knowledge of the one true God, this both by example (Deut. 4:5-8; Zech. 8:23) and by instructing the nations in God's Law (Isa. 2:3-4; Micah 4:2-3).
53:12 "Therefore, I will divide a portion to him with the great, and he shall divide the spoil with the mighty." If Jesus is God, does the idea of reward have any meaning? Is it not rather the Jewish people - who righteously bore the sins of the world and yet remained faithful to God (Ps. 44) - who will be rewarded, and this in the manner described more fully in Isaiah chapters 52 and 54?
Any additional comment seems unnecessary. It is clear to me which version makes more sense.
“”He will prolong his days.” Not only did Jesus die young, but how could the days be prolonged of someone who is alleged to be God?”
By being raised from the dead, you silly goose!
Isa. 42:1-4, “Behold my servant, whom I uphold; mine elect, in whom my soul delighteth; I have put my spirit upon him: he shall bring forth judgment to the Gentiles. He shall not cry, nor lift up, nor cause his voice to be heard in the street. A bruised reed shall he not break, and the smoking flax shall he not quench: he shall bring forth judgment unto truth. He shall not fail nor be discouraged, till he have set judgment in the earth: and the isles shall wait for his law.”
This can’t be Israel since Israel is about to go into captivity and its cities and land devastated because of idolatry. Israel was a war-like nation, not a peaceable nation as this servant is described. From the time of the return from exile, Israel has never “brought forth judgment unto truth”. The isles of the earth to this day hunger after its demise.
Isa. 49:1-6, “ Listen, O isles, unto me; and hearken, ye people, from far; The LORD hath called me from the womb; from the bowels of my mother hath he made mention of my name. And he hath made my mouth like a sharp sword; in the shadow of his hand hath he hid me, and made me a polished shaft; in his quiver hath he hid me; And said unto me, Thou art my servant, O Israel, in whom I will be glorified. Then I said, I have laboured in vain, I have spent my strength for nought, and in vain: yet surely my judgment is with the LORD, and my work with my God. And now, saith the LORD that formed me from the womb to be his servant, to bring Jacob again to him, Though Israel be not gathered, yet shall I be glorious in the eyes of the LORD, and my God shall be my strength.”
The last verse would disqualify Israel from being the servant since it speaks of gathering Jacob again to Him. Israel is Jacob.
PRELIMINARY ISSUES
First is the issue of circular reasoning.The author himself engages in “circular reasoning” by assuming that the writer is referring to Israel as the “suffering servant”.
the most that could be said is this: Isaiah 53 is about someone who dies for the sins of others. People may have seen Jesus die, but did anyone see him die as an atonement for the sins of others?
Why would it make any difference whether someone recognized at the time Jesus died, he was dying for the sins of others? He told his disciples what he was going to do and at the time they did not believe him. After the resurrection, they understood and believed. The atoning transaction was between Jesus and God the Father. Israel went into captivity for its own sin; the sin of idolatry. There is no evidence anywhere where Israel atoned for the sins of others; in fact, because of its sin, Israel could not atone for another’s sin, only its own.
Second (and consistent with all Jewish teaching at the time), Jesus' own disciples didn't view Isaiah 53 as a messianic prophecy.
That’s true, however Luke 24:44-47, “And he said unto them, These are the words which I spake unto you, while I was yet with you, that all things must be fulfilled, which were written in the law of Moses, and in the prophets, and in the psalms, concerning me. Then opened he their understanding, that they might understand the scriptures, and said unto them, Thus it is written, and thus it behoved Christ to suffer, and to rise from the dead the third day: and that repentance and remission of sins should be preached in his name among all nations, beginning at Jerusalem.”
After their understanding was enlightened they understood the significance of the prophecy and taught it to their disciples: The deacon Philip interpreted this Isaiah 53 passage as referring to Jesus (Acts 8:32-35, "The place of the scripture which he read was this, He was led as a sheep to the slaughter; and like a lamb dumb before his shearer, so opened he not his mouth: In his humiliation his judgment was taken away: and who shall declare his generation? for his life is taken from the earth. And the eunuch answered Philip, and said, I pray thee, of whom speaketh the prophet this? of himself, or of some other man? Then Philip opened his mouth, and began at the same scripture, and preached unto him Jesus").
The apostle Paul understood the prophecy referred to Jesus : Rom 10:13-16, “For whosoever shall call upon the name of the Lord shall be saved. How then shall they call on him in whom they have not believed? And how shall they believe in him of whom they have not heard? And how shall they hear without a preacher? And how shall they preach, except they be sent? As it is written, How beautiful are the feet of them that preach the gospel of peace, and bring glad tidings of good things! But they have not all obeyed the gospel. For Esaias saith, Lord, who hath believed our report?”
Even Jesus didn't see Isaiah 53 as crucial to his messianic claims - why else did he call the Jews children of the devil for not believing in him before the alleged resurrection (Jn. 8:39-47)?
Jesus understood the significance of the prophecy: Jhn 12:37-41, “But though he had done so many miracles before them, yet they believed not on him: That the saying of Esaias the prophet might be fulfilled, which he spake, Lord, who hath believed our report? And to whom hath the arm of the Lord been revealed? Therefore they could not believe, because that Esaias said again, He hath blinded their eyes, and hardened their heart; that they should not see with [their] eyes, nor understand with [their] heart, and be converted, and I should heal them. These things said Esaias, when he saw his glory, and spake of him.”
And why did he later request that God "remove this cup from me" (Mk. 14:36) - didn't he know that a "removal of the cup" would violate the gentile understanding of Isaiah 53?
Jesus was human. Heb. 5:7-8, “Who in the days of his flesh, when he had offered up prayers and supplications with strong crying and tears unto him that was able to save him from death, and was heard in that he feared; Though he were a Son, yet learned he obedience by the things which he suffered.”
The author does not finish the thought, “never the less, not my will but Thine be done.”
And third, even if we accept the gentile Christian interpretation of Isaiah 53, where is it indicated (either in Isaiah 53 or anywhere else in our Jewish Scriptures) that you must believe in this "Messiah" to get the benefits? I don’t understand his point.
This should answer the writer’s verse by verse interpretation.
“Given the Christian view that Jesus is God, is God His own servant?” Sounds just like a Nicodemus type question..”Can a man be born twice?”
No and Yes!...By Jesus serving the Father as a fully actuated sinless man (as well as being God in flesh), he was the perfect example of how men should serve God. Jesus even served his disciples by washing their feet while exhorting them to Love one another. Jesus serves those who love him by washing away their sins and “dropping them into the sea of forgetfullness and remembering those sins no more.” then telling us...”Go and sin no more”. Then Jesus serves us again by promising us the power of the Holy Spirit...so that men could boldly proclaim the gospel to every creature, then baptizing them in the Shekinah glory of God’s spirit. By serving as a man, by giving up his pre-incarnate Glory willingly, he was the ultimate expression of God’s heart extended to fallen humans.
The premise of your question needs to be adjusted...God became a servant and advocate for man, by becoming a perfect man himself,,,since there was no other man that could lift the curse of sin and degredation because all men have sinned”and come short of the glory of God”. There was no animal sacrifice that could fully cleanse men of sin except God’s own sacrifice of his expressed heart to man..that is Jesus Christ. In Genesis we find indications of what God was intending to do, when he at first commanded Abraham to offer up his son Isaac as a sacrifice...later staying his hand when God saw that Abraham was willing to lose all he cherished in trust to God. Abraham I believe began to get the hint when after sacrificing the” provided ram”, Abraham named the place “God the Provider” (Jehovah gyra).