It's a plain language unambiguous claim and as such the verse is fundamental. The source for what I've been told is John, a friend of Jesus' that walked with Him while He lived on Earth. Jesus agreed with the plain language given by John in his first chapter. Here is the quote from God.
John 8:58, "I tell you the truth," Jesus answered, "before Abraham was born, I am!"
Obviously that is a fundamental claim that takes precedence over anything anyone else says about the matter. It is was given to all and was written by John in plain language. Everything else must be referenced from the fact given in John 8:58, not otherwise.
Again, your model has many flaws and puts the Bible at odds with itself.
“I am” is not secret code for “I am God”.
Even “I am that I am” is a poor translation of the Hebrew which is better translated ‘I will become what I will become’ or I will be what I need to be. This is evident with the redemptive names of God and I’m sure that if you’re not familiar you can google the term.
Jesus was talking to the pharisees or saducees (don’t recall at the moment) and was reiterating that Abraham *was* the way of righteousness...and that if they were really living up to their claim of being of Abraham they would be happy to see Jesus. Abraham *was* the way or righteousness. Jesus became the way of righteousness.
Previously Abraham was. Currently I am.
Jesus Christ. The way, they truth, the life. The only way to God is through Jesus. Wouldn’t that be silly to say that the only way to God was through God if Jesus is God?
But does the “I am” comment refer to him being God or just a part of God’s plan??
Now God is defined in the OT as the Great I Am. So is it “
Before Abraham was born, God.
Something to ponder....