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To: spunkets
That means God became a man.

Your explanation contradicts verses where the Bible states that God is not a man that he should lie, nor the son of man that he should repent.

No man has seen God at any time. So...if Jesus was God then so one saw him?

Maybe John `1 doesn't quite mean what you have been told it does.

Latching onto that verse to prove your case opens the door to numerous contradictions.

52 posted on 06/03/2010 8:47:09 PM PDT by Eagle Eye (A blind clock finds a nut at least twice a day.)
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To: Eagle Eye
"Maybe John `1 doesn't quite mean what you have been told it does. Latching onto that verse to prove your case opens the door to numerous contradictions."

It's a plain language unambiguous claim and as such the verse is fundamental. The source for what I've been told is John, a friend of Jesus' that walked with Him while He lived on Earth. Jesus agreed with the plain language given by John in his first chapter. Here is the quote from God.

John 8:58, "I tell you the truth," Jesus answered, "before Abraham was born, I am!"

Obviously that is a fundamental claim that takes precedence over anything anyone else says about the matter. It is was given to all and was written by John in plain language. Everything else must be referenced from the fact given in John 8:58, not otherwise.

53 posted on 06/04/2010 2:16:37 PM PDT by spunkets
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