Correcting a posting error — my full post was actually—
I don’t usually get into these discussions, as I don’t “have a dog in this hunt” but...
Here’s the NIV translation of John 19:26-27 -—
26When Jesus saw his mother there, and the disciple whom he loved standing nearby, he said to his mother, “Dear woman, here is your son,” 27and to the disciple, “Here is your mother.” From that time on, this disciple took her into his home.
This is NOT what the author puts in his very first ‘scripture’ quotation and interpretation. See below:
**John 19:26 - Jesus makes Mary the Mother of us all as He dies on the Cross by saying “behold your mother.” Jesus did not say “John, behold your mother” because he gave Mary to all of us, his beloved disciples. **
I therefore find the very first line to contain a less than genuine reference to scripture, and cannot support in logic the conclusion that “he (sic) gave Mary to all of us”.
While a direct quote from scripture says “and to the disciple, “Here is your mother.” From that time on, this disciple took her into his home.” NOTE THE DIRECT REFERENCE TO “THIS DISCIPLE”.
When you freelance scripture, you lose your audience. IMHO.
Even more importantly, the Greek doesn’t say “you’all’s” mother, rather the object of the mother is directed to one person, the disciple. Nice thing about the Greek is that it so explicitly declares the nature of the object and subject.