See, all this is philosophical speculation. I can speculate on my own as well, or I can speculate with the Church and the fathers of the Church. The latter, at least, will be a speculation with some historical continuity to the Early Church. A curious corollary to your particular excercise of speculation is that if mediation necessarily involves prior hostility then we have to explain how God Who, the scripture tells us, is ontologically pure love, is hostile to us. With a likeminded person I might even indulge a discussion along these lines. But at this point, I think, the issue is much closer at hand: the scripture tells us of mediation of Christ Jesus the Man to God, -- we have to presume, God the Father. The scripture also tells us of mediation of a different kind, better described as intercession that Mary accomplished at Cana or Timothy is asked to do in his church on behalf of all the rest of mankind. That latter kind is the intercession of saints. Quite biblical. St, Paul asks for it in every letter. There is no biblical reason to say that this intercession stops at the saint's death; there is in fact a better reason to say that it intensifies, as they, the saints, "see face to face" (1 Cor. 13:12)
You want the Bible, I am happy to discuss the Bible. Don't give me your philosophical pap back.
Roman Catholics don't trust the Bible. Apparently they don't trust the dictionary either.
That latter kind is the intercession of saints. Quite biblical. St, Paul asks for it in every letter.
Nowhere in Scripture are we told to pray to anyone other than the Triune God alone.
It seems to me by your posts that you agree with us that there is only one mediator between God the Father and us, through His Son, our Lord Jesus Christ. While the Roman Catholic Church has acknowledge that Mary participates in dispensing grace, it has not been formally approved that Mary dispenses all grace.
Given the fact that you seem to believe there is only one mediator through our Lord Jesus, if the Church were to declare Mary to be co-equal in dispensing God’s grace, would you denounce the Church’s heretical views?
“See, all this is philosophical speculation.”
The Greek word for mediator as used in the bible is interpreted as “one who intervenes between two, either in order to make or restore peace and friendship, or form a compact, or for ratifying a covenant, an arbitrator. John 2:3 does not fit the biblical description of a mediator.
It is an interpretive fallacy to co-opt a word that has a discrete biblical meaning as applied to Christ’s sacrificial work of reconciliation and use it to enhance some speculative dogma and all of the extra-canonical texts have no force in taking away the plain meaning of the word as used in the scriptures. Jesus’ response to his mother’s observation at the wedding demonstrates that she was no “mediator” there, “Woman, what have I to do with you?”