“See, all this is philosophical speculation.”
The Greek word for mediator as used in the bible is interpreted as “one who intervenes between two, either in order to make or restore peace and friendship, or form a compact, or for ratifying a covenant, an arbitrator. John 2:3 does not fit the biblical description of a mediator.
It is an interpretive fallacy to co-opt a word that has a discrete biblical meaning as applied to Christ’s sacrificial work of reconciliation and use it to enhance some speculative dogma and all of the extra-canonical texts have no force in taking away the plain meaning of the word as used in the scriptures. Jesus’ response to his mother’s observation at the wedding demonstrates that she was no “mediator” there, “Woman, what have I to do with you?”
That is a mistranslation, what He said was
| John | |||
| English: Douay-Rheims | Latin: Vulgata Clementina | Greek NT: Byzantine/Majority Text (2000) | |
| John 2 |
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| 4. | And Jesus saith to her: Woman, what is that to me and to thee? my hour is not yet come. | Et dicit ei Jesus : Quid mihi et tibi est, mulier ? nondum venit hora mea. | λεγει αυτη ο ιησους τι εμοι και σοι γυναι ουπω ηκει η ωρα μου |
He had reasons to desire to delay His ministry, as later He prayed for the Cup to be withheld. Verse 4 expresses that. He never denied Mary's intercession, as is evidenced by the fact that He went along with it.
That mediation of Man Christ to God is of different nature than mediation of saints to Christ is somethign a Catholic five year old can figure out. If the difference is not clear to you, I am afraid I cannot be of further help.