Your question is asked from the Protestant perspective that the Torah was given merely to teach Israel that all are sinners, and supposedly, since no one is perfect, a divine scapegoat was needed. I dealt with this very thing several months ago in my explanation of Fundamentalist Protestantism for Orthodox Jews. Would it do any good to point out that King Solomon knew that all are sinners long before chr*stianity existed, yet he knew that inherent human imperfection does not nullify the Torah.
Madam, I did not enter this thread to be a grinch. You believe the "new testament." I doubt anything I say will disabuse you. The "new testament" is so ingrained in you that you simply don't seem to be able to see the Hebrew Bible in any other way than as part of chr*stian "salvation history."
Very well. I merely point out that all this comes from accepting the "new testament" first and prior to the Torah which actually preceded it. The Jewish People, unlike you, had the Torah for a thousand years before there was a "new testament" in the world and so they do not look at it through your assumptions at all.
Ok, so they HAD it; but what GOOD has it done them?