Not really; I keep trying to get you to display the ACTUAL wording and where found of the things you post: i.e ---
While Jewishness is passed down through the mother, everything else (priesthood, kingship, tribal identity, family, inheritance) is passed down through the father. This means the messiah must be the son of a male human being who is a descendant of David and Solomon.
Not really; I keep trying to get you to display the ACTUAL wording and where found of the things you post: i.e ---
While Jewishness is passed down through the mother, everything else (priesthood, kingship, tribal identity, family, inheritance) is passed down through the father. This means the messiah must be the son of a male human being who is a descendant of David and Solomon.
Wasn't Aaron's priesthood passed down through him rather than his wife (when a priest's daughter married a non-priest she was no longer counted as a member of a priestly family, though she could return should her non-priest husband die)? Weren't the kings of Israel descended from male kings rather than king's wives? And the laws of inheritance are recorded in Numbers chapters 26, 27, and 36 (remember the daughters of Tzelofchad?). A special exception had to be made for fathers who had no sons so that their daughters could inherit their property.
In none of these cases is tribal identity, familial identity, priesthood, royalty, or inheritance passed through the mother. The exception is Jewishness itself, which is passed through the mother because the identity of the mother is always certain.
Do you know of a verse in the Hebrew Bible (not the "new testament") that authorizes chr*stianity? Why do you think chr*stianity is so much more "obvious" than that family identity is passed through the paternal line in the Bible?