If both "week"and "sabbath" are the same word (sabbaton [and they are]) and we translate them both to mean sabbath then Matthew 28:1 would read as follows:
"In the end of the sabbath, as it began to dawn toward the first [day] of the Sabbaths, came Mary Magdalene and the other Mary to see the sepulchre."
If this is true then would he not have to be crucified on Thursday at dusk just before Friday starts and then raise on the dawn of Sunday morning? Thoughts?
Shalom,
-Jay
Matthew 28:1 teaches a Sabbath resurrection: "On the later of the Sabbaths, at the dawning for the first of the Sabbaths, came Mary Magdalene and the other Mary to see the tomb." It begins, "On the later Sabbath ..." because there were two Sabbaths in Passion Week. One Sabbath was the annual Passover feast day, and the other was the weekly seventh day Sabbath which followed. In Passion Week, the annual Sabbath was on Thursday. "On the later of the Sabbaths" tells us that the resurrection was on the weekly Sabbath, and not on the annual Sabbath. Jewish believers in Yeshua know that the annual Passover feast day is a rest day as well as the weekly Sabbath.
"In the end of the sabbath...
οψε has the sense of "later" when used with the genitive case in the sense of υστερον (latter). This is mentioned in BLASS's grammar.
Consider: [Mark 15:42-47/16:1] 42 And now when the even was come, because it was the preparation, that is, the day before the sabbath, 43 Joseph of Arimathaea, an honourable counsellor, which also waited for the kingdom of God, came, and went in boldly unto Pilate, and craved the body of Jesus. 44 And Pilate marvelled if he were already dead: and calling unto him the centurion, he asked him whether he had been any while dead. 45 And when he knew it of the centurion, he gave the body to Joseph. 46 And he bought fine linen, and took him down, and wrapped him in the linen, and laid him in a sepulchre which was hewn out of a rock, and rolled a stone unto the door of the sepulchre. 47 And Mary Magdalene and Mary the mother of Joses beheld where he was laid. [16:1] 1 And when the sabbath was past, Mary Magdalene, and Mary the mother of James, and Salome, had bought sweet spices, that they might come and anoint him.
When Stephen Langton, Archbishop of Canterbury put together the Chapter and Verse divisions of Holy scripture (1228 B.C.) he did it without the inspiration of The Holy Spirit. Consequently, many folks are led to believe that the Sabbath in [16:1] is that of Saturday because he begins the 16th chapter with it. When you combine 15:42-47 to 16:1 you can readily see that the Sabbath of 16:1 is the same as 15:42 and then you realize that 16:2 is a different Sabbath.....Saturday. The Greek original has no chapters and verses.....or paragraphs.
What do the women do when the Sabbath is past? They purchase spices. The KJV fudges a bit here by attempting to show it in the past tense but....."Young's Literal Translation" renders it correctly by saying thus: And the sabbath having past, Mary the Magdalene, and Mary of James, and Salome, bought spices, that having come, they may anoint him.
Luke will now show us that the women prepare those spices (obviously on a non Sabbath day) and then they rest for another Sabbath.....Saturday. [Luke 23:56] And they returned, and prepared spices and ointments; and rested the sabbath day according to the commandment.
The Sabbath of [Mark 16:1] is the First Day of Unleavened Bread [Leviticus 23:6], the 15th of Nisan. This fell on a Wednesday night/Thursday daytime in the year of the crucifixion. The women buy the spices after this Sabbath is over.....on Thursday night or Friday daytime....the 16th and a non Sabbath day. They spend much of the day (Friday) in the preparation of those spices. They rest again for the weekly Sabbath beginning at sundown Friday the 17th and visit an empty tomb on Saturday morning at sunrise.....also the 17th.
According to all the Gospels....."He is risen"!