***“...why did the NT writers use Septuagint and not the Hebrew Scriptures in over 90% of the cases when making references to the OT if the Hebrew Scriptures are never wrong?”
Because the NT was written in Greek, not Hebrew?***
Well, yes, it is relevant but not precisely because the NT was written in Hebrew. It is not a cause. Important detail: The NT was written in Greek by Jewish writers. This is relevant. Do you have any thoughts on this?
***Well, yes, it is relevant but not precisely because the NT was written in Hebrew.***
Haste, haste, haste. Not precisely because the NT was NOT written in Hebrew. Very important point, this.
“The NT was written in Greek by Jewish writers. This is relevant. Do you have any thoughts on this?”
Actually, it isn’t particularly relevant. For example, Catholics claim that the writers of the NT used ‘brother’ to mean ‘cousin’, because Hebrew didn’t have any word for cousin or kin. Yet in reality, the NT writers used the Greek work for cousin or kin 14 times in the NT, including the Gospels.
I think the Holy Spirit knew Greek just fine, and when He “breathed” the Scripture, He knew which words were needed.